READER'S THIRD WRITING

Reader Modifies Some Of His Views

Hi Isaac,

I agree that it seems that we will have to agree to disagree agreeably. :-) How did you like that tongue-twister? :-)

But, I would like to say that your two letters, especially this one below, have caused me to refine or modify some of my statements and opinions. And for that, I sincerely thank you very much for our very frank exchange of opinions!!!! I sincerely owe you a great debt of gratitude of immense proportions; and I really, truly mean what I am saying!!!! Because of you, I discovered and corrected some errors in some of my opinions before very many people have had a chance to read them. My edited version of our first major letter exchange --- reflecting some of my changed opinions in responses listed below in this letter --- may be read at my web site at the following address if you are interested:

http://www.frankcaw.com/letters2.html

My responses to your objections in this letter are listed below as appropriate.

Very best wishes in Christ,

Frank

Reader's View On Becoming A New Creature In The Messiah

AUTHOR:

Hi Frank

A few more clarifying comments and questions?

Seeing that Matthew 5:32 also states that a man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery, implying that the divorced woman also commits adultery in her marriage to such a man, is it not the case that a divorced woman is not allowed to marry again?

READER:

Yes and no. At the end of my article, I quote scripture where Jesus said "neither do I condemn thee, go and sin no more." If a woman was once guilty of adultery --- and perhaps, if she was married at the time, her husband consequently divorced her with just, biblical cause --- but then, later, she repents and accepts Christ as her Lord and Saviour, she then starts a new life with a new, clean moral slate (that's what true forgiveness really means!). Therefore, since she is then a single person, she would be free to re-marry if reconciliation with her former husband was impossible.

AUTHOR:

Is it the case that accepting the Messiah as one's Master and Saviour alters one's marital status?

READER:

No. But, at whatever point in time a person accepts Christ as their personal Lord and Saviour, they become a new creature in Christ with a clean moral slate (since they have been forgiven). Then, at that point in time, they should begin conducting their lives according to God's commandments. The problem, however, is that often they start their new life in Christ with "baggage from the past," which is why Paul said that we should put our past behind us and look towards the future in Christ Jesus. That is why new Christians (or even former Christians who sinned and then later sincerely repented of their sins and re-dedicated their lives to God) may have committed terrible sins, including adultery, during their "old" life in sin, but since they are getting a "fresh" start in Christ Jesus, they make restitution wherever possible and practical, and then go forward with their life determined to do their very best with the help and guidance of the Holy Spirit to sin no more. And they start their new life in Christ in whatever marital state they happen to be in at the time of their conversion to Christ, and conduct their affairs accordingly.

AUTHOR:

If it was so then all new believers, previously married just before accepting the Messiah, would need to marry again if they desired to live a married life from the moment they became a believer.

READER:

Not so; please reference my previous answer above.

AUTHOR:

Otherwise if they just returned to the person who was their spouse just before they accepted the Messiah, and continued on their married life as before, they would be engaging in fornication! And if the person they were married to just before they accepted the Messiah was an unbeliever they would be forbidden from returning to such a person in marriage, seeing that believers are forbidden from marrying unbelievers!

READER:

In view of my first answer above, this is all hypothetical nonsense that has no validity or relationship to reality.

AUTHOR:

It seems to me that accepting the Messiah as one's Saviour does not change, in any way, one's marital status. For we do not have a command from the Almighty that new believers should marry again if they were married just before they became believers.

READER:

I never said anything so ridiculous. Of course new believers don't have to re-marry their spouse just because they accepted Christ as their Lord and Saviour. I was talking about people guilty of adultery or an unjustified divorce action during their life in "sin" being free in Christ now to start their life with a clean moral slate; that means if they are single due to an unjustifiable divorce, they are still free to re-marry since they have been forgiven and should start their life anew in whatever state they find themselves in at the time of their conversion.

AUTHOR:

Also, we note the scriptural acknowledgement of marriages between believers and unbelievers, indicating that these marriages were effected prior to one of those so married becoming a believer. Seeing that believers are forbidden from marrying unbelievers. It therefore seems to me that a repentant woman who was previously an adulteress would have ceased her adultery at the time she accepted the Messiah as her Saviour. If her adultery involved continually living with a man not her lawful husband, then she would have to have ceased living with this man.

READER:

When one becomes a believer in Christ, then, of course, one should then conform every aspect of their life to God's Holy Word. Therefore, if she had been living with a man to whom she was not married, then after her conversion to Christ, she would have to quit committing adultery with him.

AUTHOR:

And if her lawful husband refused to be reconciled with her, her lawful husband having divorced her, then she would have to live as a single woman, without a husband, in order to be compliant with Matthew 5:32.

READER:

Not so. She begins her new life in Christ with a fresh start, determined to conform her life according to the moral teachings of the Bible from that point onward. In this hypothetical example, she would immediately cease living in adultery by no longer living with a man to whom she was not married. But, since she is now single in God's eyes, she would be free to re-marry.

AUTHOR:

It further seems to me that she would only be allowed to marry again on the death of her lawful husband, which is when a married woman ceases to be under the authority of her husband.

READER:

Not true, because, in this hypothetical example, she would have no lawful husband. Let's not forget that this hypothetical woman was divorced during her life in sin, and that now, because of her conversion to Christ, all of her past failures and transgressions are in her "forgiven and forgotten" past. Therefore, when she became a new creature in Christ, she started with a clean moral slate, including the fact that she is single as far as her marital status is concerned.

AUTHOR:

And seeing that any man marrying her after her divorce commits adultery, is it not the case that she is forbidden from being married again, lest no man commit adultery on her account?

READER:

Yes, unless she honestly and sincerely repents of her past misdeeds and thereby becomes a new creature in Christ. If she really, truly does that, then she should reconcile with her former husband if at all possible. But, if reconciliation is impossible, she is free to re-marry for two very important reasons. First, she is truly forgiven by God for all of her past transgressions, including her adultery; therefore, she is a new creature in Christ starting all over again with a clean, moral slate. That is why the apostle Paul said that we should put our past failures and shortcomings behind us, and look forward to the future as a new creature in Christ. Secondly, she is free to re-marry because, in God's eyes, she is now single.

AUTHOR:

Exodus 21:22-25 reads,

'21:22"If men fight and hurt a pregnant woman so that she gives birth prematurely, and yet no harm follows, he shall be surely fined as much as the woman's husband demands and the judges allow. 21:23But if any harm follows, then you must take life for life, 21:24eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot, 21:25burning for burning, wound for wound, and bruise for bruise.'

If a man has committed the offence referred to above, and has lost a part of his body in punishment for his offence, and subsequently repents of all his sins and accepts the Messiah as his Saviour, are the lost parts of his body restored to him? Or does he continue living his life in a forgiven state but without the lost parts of his body?

READER:

That's precisely my point. You start your new life in Christ in whatever you may be in at the time you are converted, and then you conduct all of your future affairs accordingly.

Is The Almighty A Liar If He Forbids From Marrying Again A Divorced Woman Who Has Repented Of Her Adultery?

AUTHOR:

Matthew 5:27-30 reads,

'5:27"You have heard that it was said, 'You shall not commit adultery;' 5:28but I tell you that everyone who gazes at a woman to lust after her has committed adultery with her already in his heart. 5:29If your right eye causes you to stumble, pluck it out and cast it from you. For it is profitable for you that one of your members should perish, and not your whole body be cast into Gehinnom. 5:30If your right hand causes you to stumble, cut it off, and cast it from you: for it is profitable for you that one of your members should perish, and not your whole body go into Gehinnom.'

Is it therefore not the case that some people, who had previously stumbled, do indeed enter into life without portions of their body? Implying that though one is forgiven for having stumbled (sinned), the penalty effected against them, the loss of a part of their body, stands nevertheless? Such that a former adulteress who was divorced by her husband, on account of her adultery, prior to her becoming a believer, is forgiven by the Almighty of her sin of adultery, but nevertheless continues living with the effect of the penalty against her?

READER:

In other words, God didn't really forgive her because He is still going to exact punishment for her past misdeeds??? But, if you say God didn't really forgive her, then God is a liar because in His Word, He states repeatedly that He is always ready to forgive us when we become a new creature in Christ.

Reader's View On Forgiveness Differs From That Of The Author

AUTHOR:

In this case, not being allowed to marry again?

My persuasion is that she is forgiven of her sin of adultery, and her other sins. Nevertheless the penalty of her past adultery still stands.

READER:

Then she is not really forgiven. (See my divorce article for a short segment on forgiveness. [http://www.frankcaw.com/divorce.html])

AUTHOR:

She is not allowed to marry again until such time as her lawful husband who divorced her dies. She must therefore live the life of a righteous single woman.

READER:

No, she must, rather, live the life of a righteous woman, free to re-marry if she wishes.

Does A Lawful Marriage Contract Cease To Exist Simply Because A Party To The Contract Breaks It?

AUTHOR:

And if she was divorced illegally, meaning on a ground not involving her committing sexual immorality, is it not the case that her divorce, by being illegal, is null and void?

READER:

Not at all!!! Please keep in mind that for a contract or covenant to be valid and morally-enforceable, it must be agreed to by both parties to the (marriage) contract. If one party to the contract violates any of the terms to the contract, or even outright abolishes or cancels the contract, then, of course, the other (offended) party is no longer obligated to the contract either because the contract no longer exists. If a contract or covenant no longer exists, then how can a person still be obligated to it?

AUTHOR:

Matthew 19:6 reads, in part,

'What therefore the Mighty One has joined together, don't let man tear apart.'

It therefore appears that in a lawful marriage, one recognised by the Almighty, man has no authority to dissolve such a marriage, despite any purported attempts to do so. Such that any action that purports to sever such a marriage union is null and void before the Almighty. Only if a marriage union is not effected by the Almighty, such as marriages contrary to the Almighty's word, does man have authority to dissolve it. But man is devoid of the Almighty's authority to dissolve marriage unions that he has effected.

This is why I say that human divorce of valid marriages, human divorce contrary to the Almighty's word, is indeed null and void. Human divorce is valid only in a marriage that the Almighty has not effected. Such as those contrary to his word. For example, a believer marrying an unbeliever.

Also, it should be noted that even human contract law, at least English contract law, recognises the principle that the frustration of a contract does not necessarily render a contract annulled or voided. The contract still exists, only that the frustrating act renders it unenforceable.

READER:

A contract is null and void if either party terminates it. There may be penalties involved for the offending party, but nevertheless, it is terminated, and therefore non-existent.

AUTHOR:

Such that even though her husband considers her divorced from him, in reality, in the Almighty's eyes, she is still legally his wife?

READER:

I think God would believe that she should still be his wife even though the husband would not see it that way.

God is a God of reason and logic and rationality. Therefore, if in reality, the husband has continued on with his life after unfairly divorcing his wife, perhaps even re-marrying, then how in the world could God hold the poor victim of the unjust divorce responsible for what has happened? Wouldn't it make more sense for God to hold the offending party responsible for the sin that occurred, rather than punishing or blaming the offended party by condemning them to a lifetime of loneliness and frustration as a single person? Let's never forget that each and every person is responsible for their own deeds and misdeeds only; no one else's!!

AUTHOR:

The unjustly divorced woman is not responsible for her divorce. Her sinning husband is the one responsible for the unjust divorce. Her husband is therefore sinning against her.

Nevertheless, just because one sins against another does not give the other the authority to go and commit her own sin. For if the unjustly divorced wife lives in purported marriage with another man, she is indeed termed an adulteress.

READER:

Not true. If the marriage contract becomes non-existent due to the sinful divorce action by the husband, then the wife is free and single regardless of whether or not you think she shouldn't be. You have to admit the reality of reality. Of course, God doesn't approve of unjust divorces, but He has given mankind free will in such matters to choose good or evil. And if the husband chooses evil in this case, then the woman is single whether you admit it or not. And God certainly doesn't punish victims of someone else's evil actions.

Is It Cruelty And Evil To Forbid An Unjustly Divorced Woman From Marrying Again?

AUTHOR:

This is what I understand the Messiah meant by his comments in Matthew 5:31-32. The unjustly divorced wife is driven into adultery by her sinning husband, thereby becoming an adulteress.

And seeing that she is called an adulteress in her new relationship, it is indeed implied that she should not be involved in such a relationship. She should not marry again, for her marriage to her sinning husband is still valid in the Almighty's eyes. Her lot, because of her husband's sin against her, is therefore to live the life of a righteous single woman. And she must continue to so live as a righteous single woman until such time as either her husband repents of his sin against her, or he dies, at which point she is freed from being under his authority, and can marry again.

READER:

In other words, you think God is going to very cruelly punish the victim of someone else's evil actions by condemning them to a lifetime of loneliness?? How cruel and heartless and loveless, and yes, evil.

Is It Cruelty And Evil For The Almighty To Impart His Spirit Of Self-Control To An Unjustly Divorced Woman?

AUTHOR:

It should also be noted that the Almighty imparts his Spirit to his children. And one of the fruits of the Spirit is self-control (Galatians 5:22-23). It seems to me that the Almighty will indeed impart such a woman, so sinned against by her husband, adequate self-control to facilitate her living her life righteously as a single woman. After all, the Almighty desires that all his children live righteously. He therefore will make it possible for such a woman to live righteously before him.

READER:

In other words, you think God is going to very cruelly punish the victim of someone else's evil actions by condemning them to a lifetime of loneliness??

How cruel and heartless and loveless, and yes, evil.

Is Matthew 19:11-12 Irrelevant To The Subject Of Divorce And Marrying Again?

AUTHOR:

Also, Matthew 19:11-12 reads,

'19:11But he said to them, "Not all men can receive this saying, but they to whom it is given. 19:12For there are eunuchs, who were born that way from their mother's womb, and there are eunuchs, who were made eunuchs by men: and there are eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the Kingdom of Heaven's sake. He who is able to receive it, let him receive it."'

There are therefore believers who live single lives, and do so righteously before the Almighty.

READER:

Jesus was talking about those who voluntarily wish to be eunuchs, or were born that way, or cruelly made that way by evil men. That has nothing to do with what we are talking about.

Can An Unjustly Divorced Woman Be Equated To A Eunuch?

AUTHOR:

For the Almighty gives them this gift of being able to live righteous single lives before him.

It should also be noted that there are eunuchs (single people) who are made eunuchs by men. It seems that an unjustly divorced woman is a "eunuch" who has been made a "eunuch" by a man, her offending husband.

READER:

I don't think so. There are no permanent physical losses caused by the divorcing husband; the woman is quite capable of living a normal, happy life. You really have a very cruel and callous attitude towards women. I think --- based on all that you have said in our correspondences --- that you keep mixing ancient Old Testament Law and traditions with the new and better New Testament Law. As the apostle Paul said to those in his days that were trying to mix the two covenants together, you're really much better off living under the New Testament of Grace than futilely trying to be perfect and sinless living under the Old Covenant.

Is The Life Of A Single Person Necessarily A Miserable One?

AUTHOR:

Also, it does not appear to be the case that the life of a single person is necessarily a miserable, lonely and frustrating one.

READER:

From those words you just uttered, I can tell immediately that you have never experienced or enjoyed the incredible beauty and love and intimacy and caring and sharing of a "soulmate" marriage between two souls united together as one before God! I shared such a relationship with my late wife for over 26 years, and believe me, after living such a beautiful life with her, these last 16 months have vividly demonstrated to me just how lonely and incomplete a single person's life is. That is why God said that Adam needed an Eve.

AUTHOR:

Was not the Messiah single? Was he miserable, lonely and frustrated?

READER:

He was God, with a special, unique ministry mission. And He left earth at the age of 33 or 34.

AUTHOR:

Was not Paul single? Was he miserable, lonely and frustrated? Just because one is single does not necessarily mean that that one's life is miserable, lonely or frustrating.

READER:

Paul voluntarily chose to be single; that was his choice. It is an entirely different matter to force unwilling victims into a lifetime of singleness against their will when they have done nothing wrong.

Is The Stipulation Forbidding An Unlawfully Divorced Woman Marrying Again A Direct Insult To The Almighty's Integrity And Fairness?

AUTHOR:

She must strive not to add her own sin to her husband's sin against her. She must strive to walk righteously even though she is being wronged by her husband's sin. She must therefore not commit adultery by marrying or having sex with another man.

READER:

Why should the wife, who has been divorced without just biblical cause, be punished for the sins of her former husband? For that is precisely what would be happening to the poor victim in this case because you would be condemning her to a very, very long lifetime of loneliness, frustration, unfulfillment, aloneness, etc., etc., if she was not allowed to re-marry!

That would be so incredibly cruel and unfair and unjust!!! (Of course, sex without marriage would quite obviously be adultery.)

Actually, such thinking is a direct insult to the integrity and fairness of God Himself because in His precious, Holy Word, He repeatedly states through Word and Example that He is a Just and Holy God Who will judge everyone with absolute fairness and justness; everyone will reap what they sow, and everyone will be judged according to their works, i.e., deeds and misdeeds. It is absolutely impossible --- because of His Holy Character --- for God to hold a person accountable in any way whatsoever for the sins and wrongdoing of someone else. Therefore, if a woman's husband divorces her without just biblical cause, it is he who will be judged by God for wrongdoing, not the woman, i.e., the victim.

Therefore, a woman who has been unfairly divorced without just, biblical cause is free to re-marry since she is no longer bound to a marriage contract or covenant.

AUTHOR:

The issue here is not the Almighty being unjust or unfair to the wife.

It is about the offending husband being unjust and unfair to his wife, by unjustly and unfairly divorcing her.

READER:

Yes, but you're trying to say that God wants to further punish her with a lifestyle He did not intend for people to have just because her former husband sinned.

Is Matthew 5:10-12 Irrelevant To An Unjustly Divorced Woman?

AUTHOR:

Matthew 5:10-12 reads,

'5:10"Blessed are those who have been persecuted for righteousness' sake, for theirs is the Kingdom of Heaven.

5:11"Blessed are you when people reproach you, persecute you, and say all kinds of evil against you falsely, for my sake.

5:12"Rejoice, and be exceedingly glad, for great is your reward in Heaven. For that is how they persecuted the prophets who were before you.'

It should therefore be clear that righteous people do indeed suffer unjustly in this world, and the Almighty allows them to suffer. He is not unjust or unfair for allowing them to so suffer. He has instead promised to reward them for their unjust suffering, promising them his kingdom.

READER:

We're talking here in this passage about people being persecuted for their faith and belief in Christ. You, instead, are trying to force cruel lifestyles onto people because of someone else's sin --- an entirely different matter.

Is It The Case That The Almighty Never Allows Unjustly Divorced Women To Suffer?

AUTHOR:

A woman unjustly divorced surely suffers in this world with the Almighty's permission.

READER:

Not so, because God is not trying to force such things as you believe.

Reader Does Not Accept The Author's Words Based On Matthew 5:10-12

AUTHOR:

But by continuing to live a righteous life, meaning not having sex with another entity while her offending husband is still alive, she is securing the promise that the Almighty has given to all who suffer for righteousness' sake - the kingdom of the Almighty.

What is more important: unlawful marriage in this life, or securing the promise of the kingdom of the Almighty?

READER:

You're offering a false set of choices.

AUTHOR:

Matthew 10:39 reads,

'10:39He who finds his life will lose it; and he who loses his life for my sake will find it.'

Matthew 16:24-27 reads,

'16:24Then Yah'shuah said to his disciples, "If any man desires to come after me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow me. 16:25For whoever desires to save his life will lose it, and whoever will lose his life for my sake will find it. 16:26For what will it profit a man, if he will gain the whole world, and forfeit his life? Or what will a man give in exchange for his life? 16:27For the Son of Man will come in the glory of his Father with his angels, and then will he render to every man according to his deeds."'

Matthew 19:16-19 reads,

'19:16Behold, one came to him and said, "Good teacher, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?"

19:17He said to him, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but one, that is, the Mighty One. But if you want to enter into life, keep the commandments."

19:18He said to him, "Which ones?"

Yah'shuah said, "You shall not kill. You shall not commit adultery. You shall not steal. You shall not offer false testimony. 19:19Honor your father and mother. And, you shall love your neighbor as yourself."'

Matthew 19:29 reads,

'19:29Everyone who has left houses, or brothers, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, will receive one hundred times, and will inherit eternal life.'

It therefore seems to me that the unjustly divorced woman should choose the kingdom of the Almighty, rather than a better physical life in this world. For if she marries again, while her offending husband refuses to take her back into his household, she will indeed be committing adultery, according to the Messiah's words in Matthew 5:32. But if she does not marry, thereby sacrificing a life of marriage, doing so for the sake of the Messiah and for the kingdom, she will indeed be rewarded by the Almighty with eternal life in the Almighty's kingdom.

She should therefore choose to continue suffering unjustly, for the sake of the Messiah and the kingdom, and thereby secure eternal life in the Almighty's kingdom. For gaining the whole world, or even a small part of it in illicit marriage, cannot be compared to the alternative of eternal life in the Almighty's kingdom.

Are Christian Husbands The Masters Of Their Own Households Or Not?

AUTHOR:

Both Luke 16:18 and Matthew 5:32 speak of a man divorcing his wife and marrying again. They do not speak of a woman divorcing her husband and marrying again.

READER:

Gal 3:28

28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. (KJV)

There is neither male nor female; God judges all of us on an absolutely equal basis!! Accordingly, whatever moral instruction applies to men also applies to women, and vice versa!!

AUTHOR:

The Almighty has established an authority structure in the family, with the man being head over his wife. Even as the Messiah is head over his household of believers. (Ephesians 5:25-33.) And just as a believer in the Messiah's household has no authority from the Almighty to remove himself or herself from the Messiah's household, and enter into another one, so also does a wife have no authority from the Almighty to remove herself from her husband's authority and come under the authority of another man.

A believer can, in contravention of the Almighty's word, separate himself or herself from the Messiah. Even as a wife can, in contravention of the Almighty's word, separate herself from her husband. But the point is that such actions have no authority from the Almighty. Those who do such things are therefore not walking in the Almighty's righteousness.

READER:

Your very big problem is that you are trying to make your unbiblical principle of dominance and callousness over woman as the ultimate, autonomous principle in life that takes absolute precedence over every other moral commandment in the Bible. Believe me, God meant it when He said that He judges men and women the exact same way in moral issues. Christian husbands may be the spiritual leaders of their wives and family, but they are not masters who lord it over their second-class wives whose status is almost akin to that of slaves or property. I really am disturbed that you really seem to believe that women can be punished for the sins of their husbands.

Has The Author Portrayed Women As Second-Class People?

AUTHOR:

It therefore appears that a husband can legally divorce his wife on account of her sexual immorality, but a wife cannot legally divorce her husband on account of his sexual immorality.

READER:

With all due respect and brotherly love, I disagree with every fiber of my being at even considering such a horrible and terribly-unfair thought!!!

Gal 3:28

28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. (KJV)

AUTHOR:

Galatians 3:28 is not talking about the authority structure that the Almighty has established in the human household. It is talking about salvation!

In other words, with respect to salvation, the Jew has no advantage over the Greek, the free has no advantage over the bonded, and the male has no advantage over the female. All human beings are one and the same with respect to their salvation, with none having any advantage over the other.

READER:

Yes, and salvation includes the realm of morality and judgment!

Furthermore, the biblical concept of husbands being the head of their families involves a command structure of sorts, but it is not the domineering type you seem to envision. Women are not second-class people; they are equal to men in matters of morality and judgment.

AUTHOR:

Nevertheless, even in the Messiah's household, there are differing degrees of gifts or service, with some in greater authority than others. Likewise, in human households, there are differing degrees of authority. With the man as head over his wife. And parents having authority over their children.

Reader Reiterates That Unjust Divorces Are Valid In The Almighty's Eyes

AUTHOR:

They will therefore recognise that they, or other men, have no authority from the Almighty to divorce them one from another. Implying that only the Almighty has authority to break their marriage covenant.

READER:

But, obviously man can tear apart what God has joined together or otherwise it would have been an absurdity for God to say "let no man tear them apart."

So, then, if the reality is that they have been torn apart, i.e., divorced, then the marriage covenant, by definition, is null and void.

If reconciliation is impossible due to the continued intransigence of the offending party, then the victim, i.e., the offended party, is, in reality, single and therefore free to re-marry.

AUTHOR:

Whose word should hold sway? Human words or the Almighty's words?

Should the Almighty's words in Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 hold sway, that it is adultery to marry a woman unjustly divorced or put away? Or should contrary human words hold sway?

Who is greater - the Almighty or human beings? Especially human beings speaking contrary words?

READER:

Look, you really have a problem acknowledging reality. Now I would agree with you that a man should not divorce his wife without just, biblical cause, but if he disobeys God by doing so, then the woman is single whether you think she is or not. Now, I would agree with you that God would believe that they shouldn't have gotten divorced, but the reality is that the husband exercised his God-given gift of freewill by getting an unjust divorce. So, why punish the woman for the sins of the sinning husband? Don't you think that is just a little bit unfair? (When Jesus told the woman at the well in Samaria that she had several husbands, He was correct in saying so because she and all of her husbands were living in an unrepentant state. That is not the same thing as our hypothetical example where a believer is unfairly divorced by an unbeliever because the believer has done nothing wrong, and therefore should not be punished for the sins of someone else.)

What Is The Huge Difference Between Forgiveness And Reconciliation?

READER:

Yes, I agree that she should remain single or be reconciled to her husband in such instances. But, please note that the Bible gives the separated believers the option of not reconciling. Allow me to quote from my divorce article again:

QUOTE

1 Cor 7:10-11

10 And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband:

11 But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife. KJV

According to this passage, if both husband and wife are Christian believers, and one of them leaves the other, they are commanded to remain unmarried or be reconciled with their spouse; and the person who is deserted should not seek a divorce. However, if the person who leaves should ultimately seek and be granted a divorce decree, then, of course, the marriage covenant is broken and, therefore, is no longer valid, and the offended partner is under no further obligation and is free to re-marry.

END QUOTE

AUTHOR:

It is my view that the Almighty gives no option to believers not to be reconciled to one another. For Matthew 5:23-24 shows that failure to reconcile with one's brother frustrates one's fellowship with the Almighty. And if one no longer has fellowship with the Almighty they are no longer a disciple of the Messiah!

READER:

There is a huge difference between "forgiveness" and "reconciliation."

We should forgive, but that doesn't mean a Christian has to reconcile back into a marriage they don't want for any number of reasons.

Are All Of Paul's Words In Complete Harmony With The Scriptures?

AUTHOR:

It is therefore my view that Paul was giving his own personal opinion in 1 Corinthian 7:11, where he - Paul - was giving an option to married believers of not being reconciled to one another.

And where there appears to be a difference of opinion between the Messiah and one of his servants, it is the Messiah's word that prevails, seeing that the Messiah is the Master. Did not Paul acknowledge the superiority of the Messiah over his servants in 1 Corinthians 1:10-13 and the whole of 1 Corinthians 1-4?

This is why I think that 1 Corinthians 7:11 was Paul's personal opinion, where he gives an option, as it does not appear to be in harmony with the Messiah's words in Matthew 5:23-24, where the Messiah gives no option.

READER:

I find Paul's words in complete harmony with the rest of the Bible. You also are forgetting that Paul was speaking under the inspiration and guidance of the Holy Spirit even though in that instance he was not expressing a direct commandment from God Himself. A correct interpretation of Matthew eliminates any perceived disharmony with Paul's epistle.

Reader Clarifies His Understanding On The Difference Between Forgiveness And Reconciliation

AUTHOR:

For Matthew 5:23-24 commands believers to be reconciled to one another if they are to continue being in the Father's fellowship. But if the party responsible for the estrangement does not reconcile to the other, and thereby does not abide in the Messiah's words, he or she ceases to be a disciple of the Messiah. And by so ceasing to be a disciple of the Messiah his or her marriage then becomes one between a believer and an unbeliever.

READER:

You are correct in that believers should forgive and reconcile.

However, it is possible for a person to forgive their spouse and therefore feel no ill will towards them, but still not wish to reconcile back into a married state with them for a variety of reasons. If that is the case, then the scripture above commands them to remain unmarried until if and when they do reconcile.

Reader Alleges That An Unjust Divorce Is Not Sin, Provided One Does Not Marry Again

AUTHOR:

Should lawfully married people, who are also believers, deny themselves from one another? Can believers simply decide to sever their marriage on a ground not including sexual immorality?

READER:

Yes. It is not a sin to divorce someone unless you re-marry or otherwise have sex with someone. The scriptures teach that adultery is committed only if you re-marry or engage in sex.

Reader Rejects The Author's Rendition Of The Messiah's Words

AUTHOR:

I think not! For if they really consider themselves disciples of the Messiah, they will abide by the Messiah's words. But if they do not abide by the Messiah's words, and still think that they are the Messiah's disciples, they should remember John 8:31, which reads,

READER:

The Messiah never said what you are saying.

AUTHOR:

'If you remain in my word, then you are truly my disciples.'

And John 15:1-10, which reads,

'15:1"I am the true vine, and my Father is the farmer. 15:2Every branch in me that doesn't bear fruit, he takes away. Every branch that bears fruit, he prunes, that it may bear more fruit. 15:3You are already pruned clean because of the word which I have spoken to you. 15:4Remain in me, and I in you. As the branch can't bear fruit by itself, unless it remains in the vine, so neither can you, unless you remain in me. 15:5I am the vine. You are the branches. He who remains in me, and I in him, the same bears much fruit, for apart from me you can do nothing. 15:6If a man doesn't remain in me, he is thrown out as a branch, and is withered; and they gather them, throw them into the fire, and they are burned. 15:7If you remain in me, and my words remain in you, you will ask whatever you desire, and it will be done to you. 15:8In this is my Father glorified, that you bear much fruit; and so you will be my disciples. 15:9Even as the Father has loved me, I also have loved you. Remain in my love. 15:10If you keep my commandments, you will remain in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and remain in his love.'

Reader Believes Paul Was Speaking Under The Holy Spirit's Inspiration, Even When Paul Said That His Comments Were Not The Almighty's

AUTHOR:

1 Corinthians 7:12 clearly states that the succeeding comments are not the Almighty's comments, but a man's comments - Paul's comments.

READER:

Yes, but Paul was speaking under the authority and inspiration of God.

Are you saying then that this passage should not be in the Bible because it is a false representation of God's Will?

AUTHOR:

How do you assess whether any person is speaking under the inspiration of the Almighty?

Paul himself has stated that he is not giving the Almighty's command, but his own view. Is one to disregard these clear words of Paul, and still attribute to the Almighty words that even Paul, the author, does not? Who was better placed to know whether these words were from the Almighty? Paul, the author, or his readers?

If one says that these words are the Almighty's words then they clearly contradict Paul's words. And if they do not accept Paul's clear words here, what is their basis for accepting some of Paul's words and rejecting others?

READER:

Already answered.

You are forgetting that Paul was speaking under the inspiration and guidance of the Holy Spirit even though in that instance he was not expressing a direct commandment from God Himself. A correct interpretation of Matthew eliminates any perceived disharmony with Paul's epistle.

Reader Disputes The Factual Basis Of The Author's Reasoning

AUTHOR:

Matthew 19:6 clearly states that what the Almighty has joined man has no authority to tear apart. Therefore the comments in 1 Corinthians 7:12-15 have no authority from the Almighty allowing a believer to divorce an unbeliever in a marriage valid before the Almighty's eyes!

READER:

That's not quite what Paul said. Actually, Paul told believers to remain married to unbelievers if the unbelieving partner was willing to do so.

However, Paul went on to say that if the unbelieving spouse deserted the marriage and got a divorce, then, of course, the believing spouse would be blameless and single, and therefore free to re-marry.

AUTHOR:

I agree that Paul did not tell believers married to unbelievers to divorce them. But some misconstrue these words of Paul as being the Almighty's authority for believers to divorce unbelievers lawfully married to them!

AUTHOR:

Also, Paul's words in 1 Corinthians 7:12-15 do not speak of a believer who has been abandoned in his or her marriage marrying again. His comments are silent on this matter of marrying again if abandoned by one's unbelieving spouse.

READER:

Then what did Paul mean when he said:

1 Cor 7:15

15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace. (KJV)

Doesn't the phrase "not under bondage" mean that the believing spouse is no longer under bondage to the marriage covenant because it has been invalidated and made non-existent by the unbelieving spouse when the unbelieving spouse got a divorce without just, biblical cause?

AUTHOR:

Using principles you have advocated, of putting all scriptures on a given matter together and taking them all into consideration, I arrive at the following.

Any word purporting to be from the Almighty must be assessed in light of other clear words emanating from the Almighty. Any word from a servant of the Almighty must likewise be assessed by other clear words emanating from the Almighty in order to ascertain its inspiration. If the servant's word is in harmony with the clear word from the Almighty, then it could have been inspired by the Almighty. But if the servant's word conflicts with the clear word from the Almighty, then it is indeed evident that the particular word that the servant spoke was not inspired by the Almighty. This principle is derived from Isaiah 8:20.

Therefore, if 1 Corinthians 7:15 is taken as scripture, which it is not, for Paul said that he was giving his own opinion and not the Almighty's word, it must indeed be interpreted in light of the Almighty's clear words. We have the Almighty's clear words that were spoken by the Messiah in Matthew 5 and 19. 1 Corinthians 7:15 must therefore be interpreted in light of the Messiah's words, and not the other way round. For the Messiah is superior to all of his servants, especially when his servants are simply giving their own opinions devoid of any command emanating from the Messiah.

READER:

I agree, except that the Messiah didn't say in Matthew what you are saying that He said. Also, you are forgetting that Paul was speaking under the inspiration and guidance of the Holy Spirit even though in that instance he was not expressing a direct commandment from God Himself. A correct interpretation of Matthew eliminates any perceived disharmony with Paul's epistle.

AUTHOR:

Also, the Messiah said in Matthew 4:4,

'"It is written, 'Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds out of the mouth of Yahweh.'"'

It is therefore the word that emanates from the Almighty that we must live by. Not necessarily the word that emanates from human beings. And seeing that 1 Corinthians 7:12-15 emanated from a human being, and not from the Almighty, it cannot be said to be binding upon human beings in the context of justifying a believer lawfully married to an unbeliever deeming his or her marriage dissolved on the unjust departure of the unbeliever, thereby allowing such a believer to marry again.

MY CLOSING COMMENTS:

From our exchange of views it seems to me that at the present point in time we are fundamentally disagreed, with none persuading the other.

Maybe in time, if either of us changes our views, we will come to some agreement.

Shalom

ISAAC


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