Genesis 1:26-28 reads,

Hasn't Yahweh made clear that human beings are to be fruitful, are to multiply, are to fill the earth and are to subdue it?

Genesis 8:15-17 reads,

Didn't Yahweh make clear that the manner living things become fruitful and multiply on the earth is by their breeding abundantly? Isn't it therefore clear that when Yahweh speaks to humans to be fruitful and multiply on the earth he is telling them to breed abundantly?

Genesis 9:1-7 reads,

Didn't Yahweh reiterate to Noah the word he gave to Adam, of being fruitful and multiplying in the earth? Shouldn't humans be fruitful and multiply in the earth?

Genesis 11:27-32 reads,

Genesis 15 reads,

Isn't it clear from Abram's words to Yahweh that he understood that children were Yahweh's gifts? Wasn't he requesting that Yahweh grant him the gift of children?

Doesn't Abram's example show us that when we desire children we should request Yahweh to provide us with them, seeing that Yahweh is the one with power to provide children?

When Abram believed Yahweh's word to him that numerous children would be born to him, believing this at a time when he was childless, didn't Yahweh reckon that belief as righteousness? Isn't it righteousness to believe Yahweh's word?

Shouldn't we follow Abram's example and believe Yahweh's words, that Yahweh may likewise reckon righteousness to us on account of our belief in him?

When Abram believed Yahweh's word to him, did not Yahweh further reveal to him what would happen to his descendants over a number of generations? Doesn't this show us that when we believe Yahweh's words he may indeed reveal to us various aspects of the future? Shouldn't we believe Yahweh's words that he may reveal to us future events?

Genesis 16:1-2 reads,

Didn't Sarai clearly understand that it was Yahweh who had restrained her from bearing children? Isn't it in Yahweh's power to facilitate conception, bearing and giving birth, and also to prevent conception, bearing and giving birth?

Seeing that Yahweh has capacity to both facilitate conception, bearing and giving birth, and also restrain conception, bearing and giving birth, why should human beings interfere in an activity that is clearly in Yahweh's ambit? Shouldn't humans cease from preventing conception, bearing and giving birth, and leave this matter to Yahweh, seeing he is capable of so doing? Shouldn't humans rely on Yahweh?

Genesis 16:7-12 reads,

Isn't it in Yahweh's power to greatly multiply the seed or children that he gives a particular person? Isn't it also the case that Yahweh sometimes gives a person the gift of a child on account of affliction endured by that person?

Genesis 17:15-21 reads,

Isn't it the case that Yahweh sometimes gives children to those who have passed the normal age for conceiving and bearing children? Isn't it the case that Yahweh sometimes gives children to people when under normal physical circumstances it is impossible for such people to have children? Isn't that which is humanly impossible possible for Yahweh?

Genesis 18:1-15 reads,

Don't Sarah's words in 18:12 show that it is indeed pleasure for a woman to bear children?

Isn't it clear that nothing is too hard for Yahweh? Isn't it clear that Yahweh facilitates conception, bearing and giving birth even to humans who are passed their normal child conceiving, bearing and giving birth stages? Isn't it clear that Yahweh facilitates child bearing even when it appears to be humanly impossible? Isn't it clear that nothing is too hard for Yahweh? Shouldn't we believe Yahweh's words, however impossible their fulfilment appears to our human eyes?

Genesis 20 reads,

Isn't it clear that Yahweh punished Abimelech and his household for his having taken another man's wife as his own wife, even though he had yet to sexually lie with her? Isn't it also clear that Yahweh's penalty upon Abimelech and his household would have been death if he had not restored Sarah to her rightful husband? In other words, isn't the penalty for adultery - taking another man's wife as one's own and sexually lying with her - death?

Isn't it clear that Abimelech sinned unwittingly, seeing that he did not know that Sarah was another man's wife? Isn't it also clear that even though a person sins unwittingly he still bears the penalty for that sin?

Isn't it clear from Yahweh's word in 20:6 that taking another man's wife as your own is sin against Yahweh?

Isn't it also clear from Yahweh's word in 20:6-7 that he prevented Abimelech from sinning against him, by not allowing him to sexually touch Sarah? Isn't it the case that Abimelech was not aware of Yahweh's command to him not to sexually touch Sarah prior to his conversation with Yahweh in the dream? Doesn't this show that sometimes Yahweh permits us or prevents us from taking courses of action without our being consciously aware of his word to us in those situations?

Doesn't it appear that there were two sins involved in the matter of Abimelech and Sarah? Wasn't the first sin that Abimelech committed, the lesser sin, that of taking another man's wife as his own? Wasn't the second sin, the greater sin, which Abimelech did not commit because Yahweh prevented him from so committing, that of sexually lying with another man's wife?

Doesn't Yahweh show that once a person becomes aware of his sin he should repent of it, by making reparations for the sin? Didn't Abimelech duly pay appropriate reparations to Abraham, against whom he had sinned on account of taking his wife Sarah as his own wife?

Doesn't Yahweh also show that his servants should pray for repentant sinners, that Yahweh might heal them of the consequences of their sins? Didn't Abraham duly pray for Abimelech?

Doesn't the encounter between Abimelech and Abraham show that to prevent a person committing sin appropriate disclosure of the circumstances of a situation should be made? Such as disclosing to other men that a particular woman is indeed wife to a man, that each such man may desist from sexually lying with her?

Isn't it clear that for Abimelech's sin of taking another man's wife as his own Yahweh made barren both Abimelech and his household - his wife and his maidservants (concubines)? Isn't it clear that a person's sin can indeed bring about a curse affecting not just that sinner, but also his entire household?

Did Yahweh punish Abimelech's wife and maidservants (concubines) because they were one flesh with Abimelech, and therefore one entity as far as Yahweh was concerned?

Isn't it clear that barrenness is a curse that Yahweh has inflicted upon a household that has sexually sinned against him? Isn't it therefore the case that the barrenness suffered by some people arises on account of sexual sin in their family?

Isn't it clear that Yahweh did not reprove Abimelech for taking an additional wife, seeing that he already had his own wife and maidservants (concubines)? Isn't it clear that the reproof was for adultery - taking another man's wife as his own, and not for polygyny - taking more than one woman as one's wife? Isn't it clear that polygyny is not adultery?

Why do human beings condemn those who practise polygyny when Yahweh does not condemn them? Why do human beings call polygyny sin yet Yahweh does not call polygyny sin?

Isn't it clear that when Abimelech called his nation a righteous nation Yahweh did not dispute this word of Abimelech? Isn't it clear that at this time Abimelech was indeed practising polygyny, having a wife and maidservants (concubines)? Isn't it clear that while Abimelech understood adultery to be a great sin, he understood polygyny not to be sin, seeing that the women he sexually took to himself were not the wives of other men?

Shouldn't we follow Yahweh's example, of not condemning those who practise polygyny? Shouldn't we accept that polygyny is indeed within the bounds of Yahweh's word, and is therefore not sin?

Shouldn't we also, learning from Abimelech's example, take precautions before taking a woman as a wife or otherwise taking her sexually? Shouldn't we first ascertain that she is not a man's wife, checking with a person in authority over her, or otherwise privy to the information? And where we cannot find a human in such stead, shouldn't we seek Yahweh and obtain from him both the answer and his will for us in that matter?

Genesis 21:1-7 reads,

Didn't Sarah derive pleasure, showing it in laughter, when Yahweh did to her as he had spoken? Didn't Sarah derive pleasure when Yahweh facilitated her conception, bearing and giving birth to a child, especially at a time when it was no longer humanly possible for both Abraham and Sarah to have children? Isn't Yahweh faithful to his word? Isn't it the case that Yahweh's words do not fall to the ground, in that they are not fulfilled, because Yahweh ensures their fulfilment, even when it appears impossible to humans?

Genesis 25:19-26 reads,

Isn't it the case that where barrenness exists Yahweh should be entreated to remove the barrenness? Isn't this what Isaac's father Abraham did when he prayed for Abimelech and his household, when Yahweh had made them barren? Isn't this also what Isaac did for his wife? Isn't this what servants of Yahweh should do on behalf of those who are barren and desire to conceive and bear children, especially when such barren people are also servants of Yahweh?

Genesis 29:31-35 reads,

Isn't it the case that both sisters, Leah and Rachel, were barren? Hadn't Leah been married to Jacob seven years yet had not conceived?

Doesn't 29:31 show that Yahweh opened Leah's womb because she was hated, or not loved as her sister Rachel was loved? In other words, didn't Yahweh compensate her for her mistreatment by giving her a child? Also, isn't it seen that children are Yahweh's gifts to those he gives them to?

Isn't it also seen again that it is Yahweh who has power to facilitate the conception, bearing and giving birth of a woman, such that when he closes a womb it cannot conceive and when he opens it conception is indeed possible?

Isn't it seen that Leah thought that her husband would love her on account of her bearing children to him? In other words, didn't she think that her husband's love for her would be given in exchange for her bearing children to him, being conditional on her bearing children to him?

Was Jacob's love for his wives conditional? When he loved Rachel before she became his wife, was it because Rachel had fulfilled a condition that Jacob had laid, or was it influenced by Rachel's beauty? Even after Leah had borne to Jacob a number of sons did his love for her change? Didn't it apparently remain as it had been before, without there being an increase in the love he manifested towards Leah?

Doesn't 29:35 show that a time came when Leah stopped bearing children? In other words, didn't Yahweh again close her womb?

Isn't it therefore clear that Yahweh indeed opened Leah's womb at his appointed time, and again closed it at another appointed time? Isn't it the case that Leah could only conceive during the period of time that Yahweh had opened her womb, and not outside this period?

Doesn't the manner Yahweh dealt with Leah show us that it is indeed in his ambit to determine the time when a woman conceives, bears and gives birth to children? Shouldn't Yahweh's people rely on him to determine for them when they conceive, bear and give birth to children? Shouldn't Yahweh's people avoid interfering with matters that are in Yahweh's ambit, such as the timing of conception, bearing and giving birth to children? Shouldn't Yahweh's people leave this matter entirely to Yahweh?

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