Humans Are To Be Fruitful, Multiply, Fill The Earth And Subdue It
Genesis 1:26-28 reads,
1:26
God said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the sky, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth." 1:27God created man in his own image. In God’s image he created him; male and female he created them. 1:28God blessed them. God said to them, "Be fruitful, multiply, fill the earth, and subdue it. Have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the sky, and over every living thing that moves on the earth."Hasn't Yahweh made clear that human beings are to be fruitful, are to multiply, are to fill the earth and are to subdue it?
Genesis 2:18-25 reads,
2:18
Yahweh God said, "It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him a helper suitable for him." 2:19Out of the ground Yahweh God formed every animal of the field, and every bird of the sky, and brought them to the man to see what he would call them. Whatever the man called every living creature, that was its name. 2:20The man gave names to all cattle, and to the birds of the sky, and to every animal of the field; but for man there was not found a helper suitable for him. 2:21Yahweh God caused a deep sleep to fall on the man, and he slept; and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh in its place. 2:22He made the rib, which Yahweh God had taken from the man, into a woman, and brought her to the man. 2:23The man said, "This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh. She will be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man." 2:24Therefore a man will leave his father and his mother, and will join with his wife, and they will be one flesh. 2:25They were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.Isn't it the case that non-human living creatures are not helpers suitable for men? Isn't it the case that the helper that is suitable for a man is a woman, and not other living creatures?
How Is A Woman To Be A Suitable Helper To A Man?
In what is a woman to help a man? What is man's task that he needs the suitable help of a woman?
Isn't it man's task to be fruitful, to multiply, to fill the earth and to subdue it? Isn't it the case that a man needs a woman in order to be fruitful, to multiply, to fill the earth and to subdue it?
Why did Yahweh make man incapable of fulfilling alone the task he had given him? Why did he make man to need a woman, a helper suitable for him, to facilitate his fulfilling Yahweh's task to him?
A Helper Suitable For A Man Is One Given Him By Yahweh
Isn't it the case that a woman who is a helper suitable for a man is one Yahweh has given to the man? Isn't this what Yahweh did with the man he had created, giving to him a woman who was a helper suitable for him? Shouldn't men have as their suitable helpers women given them by Yahweh?
A Helper Suitable For A Man Is His Wife
Doesn't 2:24 refer to a woman who is a helper suitable for a man as his wife? Doesn't 2:24 also show that there comes a time when a man is to leave his father and mother? Isn't this the time when a man is to fulfil the task that Yahweh has set for him? Isn't the task Yahweh has set for him that of being fruitful, multiplying, filling the earth and subduing it? Doesn't fulfilment of this task require that the man have a helper suitable for him - a woman? Doesn't 2:24 show that this woman, this helper suitable for the man, is called his wife or his woman? In other words, doesn't this woman belong to the man? Doesn't 2:24 show that the man and his woman/wife are to become one flesh? Isn't their becoming one flesh - having sex - the manner they fulfil the task Yahweh has given them, that of being fruitful, multiplying, filling the earth and subduing it?
Meaning Of A Man And A Woman Being One Flesh
Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible references the word "flesh" in 2:24 as number 1320. Word number 1320 in Strong's Hebrew and Chaldee Dictionary is defined as:
"basar, baw-sawr'; from 1319; flesh (from its freshness); by extens. body, person; also (by euphem.) the pudenda of a man:- body, [fat, lean] flesh [-ed], kin, [man-] kind, + nakedness, self, skin."
The Merriam-Webster Collegiate Dictionary, © 1994, defines pudenda as follows:
"pu.den.dum n, pl -da [NL, sing. of L pudenda, fr. neut. pl. of pudendus, gerundive of pudere to be ashamed] (1634): the external genital organs of a human being and esp. of a woman--usu. used in pl. -- pu.den.dal adj"
Isn't it therefore clear that the pudenda of a man are his genital or sexual organs? And therefore, isn't it clear that when a man becomes "one flesh" with his wife as stated in 2:24 he indeed has sexual or genital unity with his wife? Isn't a man being one flesh with his wife his having sex with his wife? Doesn't the phrase to be one flesh simply mean to have sex?
A Man Should Depart From His Parents' Authority Prior To Fulfilling Yahweh's Task To Him
Isn't it the case that a man should not embark on fulfilling the task given him by Yahweh while he is still under his parents' authority? Isn't it the case that he should depart from being under his parents' authority that he may set up a new household - his own household, whereby he and his wife will likewise be parents and have children under their authority? Isn't it also the case that the time for a man to depart from being under his parents' authority is the time when he sets up his own family?
A Man Should Have A Wife Prior To Leaving His Parents' Authority
Doesn't 2:24 show that by the time a man is departing from being under his parents' authority he already has a woman - a wife - belonging to him? Such that when he leaves his parents' household he sexually unites with a woman who is already his wife?
How Does A Woman Become A Man's Wife Prior To Their Sexual Union?
When does a woman belong to a man prior to his departing out of his parents' household? How does a woman come to belong to a man prior to their sexual union - their becoming one flesh? How does Yahweh give a woman to a man to be his wife, his helper suitable for him, prior to their sexual union?
A Man's Wife Should Be Together With Him
Genesis 3:9-12 reads,
3:9
Yahweh God called to the man, and said to him, "Where are you?"3:10
The man said, "I heard your voice in the garden, and I was afraid, because I was naked; and I hid myself."3:11
God said, "Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten from the tree that I commanded you not to eat from?"3:12
The man said, "The woman whom you gave to be with me, she gave me of the tree, and I ate."Isn't it the case that Yahweh gave the woman to the man that she may be with him - be his companion? Isn't it the case that a man's woman or wife should be with him, rather than apart from him?
A Man Should Not Listen To His Wife's Voice Outside Yahweh's Word
Genesis 3:16-21 reads,
3:16
To the woman he said, "I will greatly multiply your pain in childbirth. In pain you will bring forth children. Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you."3:17
To Adam he said, "Because you have listened to your wife’s voice, and have eaten of the tree, of which I commanded you, saying, ‘You shall not eat of it,’ cursed is the ground for your sake. In toil you will eat of it all the days of your life. 3:18Thorns also and thistles will it bring forth to you; and you will eat the herb of the field. 3:19By the sweat of your face will you eat bread until you return to the ground, for out of it you were taken. For you are dust, and to dust you shall return."3:20
The man called his wife Eve, because she was the mother of all living. 3:21Yahweh God made coats of skins for Adam and for his wife, and clothed them.Isn't it the case that a man should not listen to the voice of his wife when her word is not in harmony with Yahweh's word? Isn't it also the case that Yahweh holds human beings responsible for their actions, irrespective of whether or not they were induced into those actions by others?
Humans Begin To Fulfil Their Yahweh-Given Task
Genesis 4:1-2 reads,
4:1
The man knew Eve his wife. She conceived, and gave birth to Cain, and said, "I have gotten a man with Yahweh’s help." 4:2Again she gave birth, to Cain’s brother Abel. Abel was a keeper of sheep, but Cain was a tiller of the ground.Isn't it the case that the man and his wife began fulfilling the task Yahweh gave them, of being fruitful, multiplying, filling the earth and subduing it? By his intimate knowledge of his wife - by having sex with his wife - didn't she conceive, bear and give birth to children? Wasn't this the beginning of humans being fruitful, multiplying, filling the earth and subduing it?
A Man Should Have Sex With His Wife
Isn't it the case that a man and his wife should continue the process of fulfilling the task Yahweh has given human beings, of being fruitful, multiplying, filling the earth and subduing it? Isn't it the case that a man should intimately know his wife - have sex with her, thereby facilitating the fulfilment of Yahweh's word to them?
Should Humans Impede Their Being Fruitful, Multiplying, Filling The Earth And Subduing It?
Seeing that Yahweh has given humans this task of being fruitful, of multiplying, of filling the earth and subduing it, should humans seek to prevent their fulfilment of Yahweh's word to them? Should humans seek to have sex but prevent their being fruitful, multiplying, filling the earth and subduing it? Is it proper for a man and a woman to know one another intimately, to have sex together, but prevent their being fruitful, multiplying, filling the earth and subduing it?
Was Lamech Walking In Yahweh's Word When He Took Two Wives?
Genesis 4:19 reads,
4:19
Lamech took two wives: the name of the one was Adah, and the name of the other Zillah.Was Lamech walking in Yahweh's word when he took more than one wife? Did Yahweh prohibit a man from having more than one helper suitable for him? Can a man have more than one helper suitable for him and still walk in Yahweh's word?
Genesis 2 Does Not Restrict A Man To Having Only One Helper Suitable For Him
Don't Genesis 2:18 and 20 refer to "a helper suitable for him"? Isn't it the case that they do not say "the helper suitable for him"? Isn't it therefore presumptuous to suggest that by Yahweh having given the man a helper suitable for him he implied or meant that he was restricted to only one helper? If Yahweh did not restrict a man from having more than one helper suitable for him, is it appropriate one human to restrict a man from having more than one helper suitable for him? In so restricting a man from having more than one helper suitable for him is a human following Yahweh's word or his own word or human tradition?
A Long Time Taken Prior To Men Fulfilling The Task Given Them By Yahweh
Genesis 5:1-5 reads,
5:1
This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, he made him in God’s likeness. 5:2He created them male and female, and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created. 5:3Adam lived one hundred thirty years, and became the father of a son in his own likeness, after his image, and named him Seth. 5:4The days of Adam after he became the father of Seth were eight hundred years, and he became the father of sons and daughters. 5:5All the days that Adam lived were nine hundred thirty years, then he died.Why did Adam take so long - one hundred thirty years - before becoming the father of a son in his own likeness, after his image? Was it that he and his wife Eve had not been making a point of regularly having sex between the two of them? Or was it for some other reason?
Unless Yahweh Facilitates Conception A Woman Cannot Conceive
Doesn't Genesis 4:1 show that Eve acknowledged that she got a son by Yahweh's help? Doesn't this imply that even though she and Adam were probably having sex regularly, it was not until Yahweh stepped in to help Eve that she conceived, bore and gave birth to a son? Doesn't this show that unless and until Yahweh facilitates a woman conceiving, bearing and giving birth to a child, she will indeed not so conceive, bear and give birth?
Should Humans Interfere With Their Being Fruitful, Multiplying And Filling The Earth?
Seeing that it is in Yahweh's power to facilitate the conception, bearing and giving birth of a child, why do humans interfere with this aspect in Yahweh's ambit? Why do humans prevent the conception, bearing and giving birth of children even when Yahweh facilitates their so conceiving, bearing and giving birth? Is it proper for humans to interfere in this matter that is clearly in Yahweh's ambit?
God's Sons Married Women Who Bore Them Mighty Men Of Renown
Genesis 6:1-4 reads,
6:1
It happened, when men began to multiply on the surface of the ground, and daughters were born to them, 6:2that God’s sons saw that men’s daughters were beautiful, and they took for themselves wives of all that they chose. 6:3Yahweh said, "My spirit will not strive with man forever, because he also is flesh; yet will his days be one hundred twenty years." 6:4The Nephilim were in the earth in those days, and also after that, when God’s sons came to men’s daughters. They bore children to them: the same were the mighty men who were of old, men of renown.Isn't it clear that the Nephilim, the mighty men of old, men of renown, were the children men's daughters bore to God's sons? Isn't it also clear that God's sons took for wives men's daughters? Isn't it also clear that God's sons selected among men's daughters those they took as their wives?
Were God's Sons Walking In Yahweh's Word When They Married Women?
Were God's sons walking in Yahweh's word when they took men's daughters as their wives? Did Yahweh give men's daughters to God's sons, even as he gave Eve to Adam to be his wife? Or did God's sons take men's daughters as their wives without regard to Yahweh's word - without Yahweh having given them these women as their wives?
Breeding Facilitates Being Fruitful And Multiplying On The Earth
Genesis 8:15-17 reads,
8:15
God spoke to Noah, saying, 8:16"Go forth from the ark, you, and your wife, and your sons, and your sons’ wives with you. 8:17Bring forth with you every living thing that is with you of all flesh, including birds, cattle, and every creeping thing that creeps on the earth; that they may breed abundantly in the earth, and be fruitful, and multiply on the earth."Didn't Yahweh make clear that the manner living things become fruitful and multiply on the earth is by their breeding abundantly? Isn't it therefore clear that when Yahweh speaks to humans to be fruitful and multiply on the earth he is telling them to breed abundantly?
Yahweh Reiterated To Noah The Task Given Adam
Genesis 9:1-7 reads,
9:1
God blessed Noah and his sons, and said to them, "Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth. 9:2The fear of you and the dread of you will be on every animal of the earth, and on every bird of the sky. Everything that the ground teems with, and all the fish of the sea are delivered into your hand. 9:3Every moving thing that lives will be food for you. As the green herb, I have given everything to you. 9:4But flesh with the life of it, the blood of it, you shall not eat. 9:5I will surely require your blood of your lives. At the hand of every animal I will require it. At the hand of man, even at the hand of every man’s brother, I will require the life of man. 9:6Whoever sheds man’s blood, by man will his blood be shed, for in the image of God made he man. 9:7Be fruitful, and multiply. Bring forth abundantly in the earth, and multiply in it."Didn't Yahweh reiterate to Noah the word he gave to Adam, of being fruitful and multiplying in the earth? Shouldn't humans be fruitful and multiply in the earth?
Yahweh Had Closed Sarai's Womb
Genesis 11:29-30 reads,
11:29
Abram and Nahor took wives. The name of Abram’s wife was Sarai, and the name of Nahor’s wife, Milcah, the daughter of Haran who was also the father of Iscah. 11:30Sarai was barren. She had no child.Seeing that it is Yahweh who facilitates a woman conceiving, bearing and giving birth to a child, isn't it the case that Yahweh had not so facilitated in the case of Sarai? Isn't it the case that Sarai was incapable of conceiving, bearing and giving birth to a child without Yahweh so facilitating it?
Why was Sarai barren?
Is It Proper For A Woman To Impede Her Fruitfulness When Yahweh Has Not Impeded It?
Is it proper for a woman to prevent her conception, bearing and giving birth to a child when Yahweh has indeed facilitated her so conceiving, bearing and giving birth? Is it proper for a woman to prevent or withhold receipt from Yahweh what Yahweh avails to her? Do such women consider that later on in life when they might desire that Yahweh facilitates their conception, bearing and giving birth he might not, seeing that when Yahweh availed this to them they rejected it? Shouldn't humans receive conception, bearing and giving birth from Yahweh at Yahweh's appointed time rather than try to do so at a time outside Yahweh's appointed time? Shouldn't humans place their bodies in subjection to Yahweh rather than resist submitting to Yahweh with their bodies?
Should Not Servants Of Yahweh Subject Their Bodies To Yahweh?
In placing one's body in subjection to Yahweh, shouldn't one be ready to conceive, bear and give birth at Yahweh's appointed time? Implying that one should not prevent conception, bearing and giving birth but should allow Yahweh to so facilitate conception, bearing and giving birth at his appointed time? Isn't it the case that when a woman does not prevent her conception, bearing and giving birth and Yahweh does not facilitate her conceiving, bearing and giving birth, that she will indeed not conceive, bear and give birth? Such that she will not conceive, bear and give birth to a child unless it is Yahweh's appointed time for her to so conceive, bear and give birth?
Isn't it more appropriate to submit our bodies to Yahweh's will for us, than to insist on our own will without submitting to Yahweh's will for us? Doesn't submitting our bodies to Yahweh's will for us allow Yahweh to facilitate our conception, bearing and giving birth at his appointed times?
Pharaoh Took Another Man's Wife
Genesis 12:10-20 reads,
12:10
There was a famine in the land. Abram went down into Egypt to sojourn there, for the famine was sore in the land. 12:11It happened, when he was come near to enter into Egypt, that he said to Sarai his wife, "See now, I know that you are a beautiful woman to look on. 12:12It will happen, when the Egyptians will see you, that they will say, ‘This is his wife.’ They will kill me, but they will save you alive. 12:13Please say that you are my sister, that it may be well with me for your sake, and that my soul may live because of you."12:14
It happened that when Abram had come into Egypt, the Egyptians saw that the woman was very beautiful. 12:15The princes of Pharaoh saw her, and praised her to Pharaoh; and the woman was taken into Pharaoh’s house. 12:16He dealt well with Abram for her sake. He had sheep, and oxen, and he-asses, and men-servants, and maid-servants, and she-asses, and camels. 12:17Yahweh plagued Pharaoh and his house with great plagues because of Sarai, Abram’s wife. 12:18Pharaoh called Abram, and said, "What is this that you have done to me? Why didn’t you tell me that she was your wife? 12:19Why did you say, ‘She is my sister,’ so that I took her to be my wife? Now therefore, see your wife, take her, and go your way."12:20
Pharaoh gave men charge concerning him: and they brought him on the way, and his wife, and all that he had.Isn't it the case that Pharaoh took another man's wife, Sarai, to be his wife? Did Yahweh approve of Pharaoh's action - taking another man's wife to be his wife?
Yahweh Punished Pharaoh And His House For Taking Another Man's Wife
Didn't Yahweh punish Pharaoh and his house for his conduct in taking another man's wife to be his wife? Didn't Yahweh, by punishing Pharaoh, make clear that a man should not take another man's wife as his own? Isn't this adultery - taking another man's wife as your own wife?
Actions On Account Of Sarai's Barrenness
Genesis 16 reads,
16:1
Now Sarai, Abram’s wife, bore him no children. She had a handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar. 16:2Sarai said to Abram, "See now, Yahweh has restrained me from bearing. Please go in to my handmaid. It may be that I will obtain children by her." Abram listened to the voice of Sarai. 16:3Sarai, Abram’s wife, took Hagar the Egyptian, her handmaid, after Abram had lived ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to Abram her husband to be his wife. 16:4He went in to Hagar, and she conceived. When she saw that she had conceived, her mistress was despised in her eyes. 16:5Sarai said to Abram, "This wrong is your fault. I gave my handmaid into your bosom, and when she saw that she had conceived, I was despised in her eyes. Yahweh judge between me and you."16:6
But Abram said to Sarai, "Behold, your maid is in your hand. Do to her whatever is good in your eyes." Sarai dealt harshly with her, and she fled from her face.16:7
The angel of Yahweh found her by a fountain of water in the wilderness, by the fountain in the way to Shur. 16:8He said, "Hagar, Sarai’s handmaid, where did you come from? Where are you going?"She said, "I am fleeing from the face of my mistress Sarai."
16:9
The angel of Yahweh said to her, "Return to your mistress, and submit yourself under her hands." 16:10The angel of Yahweh said to her, "I will greatly multiply your seed, that they will not be numbered for multitude." 16:11The angel of Yahweh said to her, "Behold, you are with child, and will bear a son. You shall call his name Ishmael, because Yahweh has heard your affliction. 16:12He will be like a wild donkey among men. His hand will be against every man, and every man’s hand against him. He will live opposite all of his brothers."16:13
She called the name of Yahweh who spoke to her, "You are a God who sees," for she said, "Have I even stayed alive after seeing him?" 16:14Therefore the well was called Beer-lahai-roi. Behold, it is between Kadesh and Bered.16:15
Hagar bore a son for Abram. Abram called the name of his son, whom Hagar bore, Ishmael. 16:16Abram was eighty-six years old, when Hagar bore Ishmael to Abram.
Sarai Understood That It Was Yahweh Who Had Prevented Her From Bearing Children
Isn't it clear from 16:2 that Sarai understood that it was Yahweh who had restrained her from bearing children?
Humans Should Not Interfere With Their Fruitfulness
Seeing that Yahweh has capacity to both facilitate conception, bearing and giving birth, and also restrain conception, bearing and giving birth, why should human beings interfere in an activity that is clearly in Yahweh's ambit? Shouldn't humans cease from preventing conception, bearing and giving birth, and leave this matter to Yahweh, seeing he is capable of so doing? Shouldn't humans rely on Yahweh?
Abram Listened To His Wife's Voice
Isn't it clear from 16:2 that Abram listened to the voice of his wife? Isn't it also clear from Genesis 3 that Adam listened to the voice of his wife? In Adam's case didn't Yahweh punish him for so listening to the voice of his wife?
Why Did Yahweh Punish Adam For Listening To His Wife's Voice?
Why did Yahweh punish Adam for listening to the voice of his wife?
Didn't Yahweh punish Adam for listening to the voice of his wife in a matter contrary to Yahweh's word, seeing she spoke to Adam to disobey Yahweh's word that they not eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil?
Did Yahweh Punish Abram For Listening To His Wife's Voice?
Did Yahweh punish Abram for listening to the voice of his wife Sarai?
Isn't it the case that there is no indication that Yahweh punished Abram for having listened to the voice of his wife?
Why Didn't Yahweh Punish Abram For Listening To His Wife's Voice?
Why didn't Yahweh punish Abram yet he had listened to the voice of his wife?
Is it because Sarai's word to her husband did not conflict with Yahweh's word to them? Isn't it because Yahweh had not forbidden Abram from taking another woman as his wife, and therefore Sarai's word to Abram to so do was within Yahweh's word? Doesn't this imply that Yahweh does not forbid a man from taking another woman as his wife in addition to a wife he already has?
Lamech Was Walking In Yahweh's Word When He Took Two Wives
Seeing that Yahweh does not forbid a man from taking an additional wife isn't it the case that when Lamech took two wives, as seen in Genesis 4:19, he was walking within the bounds of Yahweh's word?
Did Abram Commit Adultery In Taking Hagar As Wife?
Also, isn't it the case that when Pharaoh took another man's wife to be his own wife Yahweh punished both him and his household, for a man should not take another man's wife to be his own wife? Did Yahweh punish Abram and his household for taking Hagar as his wife? Isn't it the case that he did not punish him for so taking her as his wife? Doesn't this imply that Hagar was not another man's wife, but was an unmarried woman not betrothed to any man? Doesn't this show that it is within the bounds of Yahweh's word for a man to take as an additional wife a woman who is not another man's wife? Doesn't this show that it is not adultery for a man to take as an additional wife a woman who is not another man's wife?
Sarai Gave Hagar As Wife To Abram
Isn't it clear from 16:2-3 that it is Sarai, who was in authority over Hagar, who gave Hagar as wife to Abram? Isn't it also clear that it was Yahweh, who was in authority over Eve, who gave Eve as wife to Adam? Isn't it therefore clear that a woman should be given as wife to a man by a person in authority over her? Isn't it also clear that a man should not take a woman as his wife prior to her being given to him by one in authority over her? Doesn't this imply that the manner that Yahweh has ordained for women to be given as wives to men is by those in authority over those women so giving them as wives to the men they do?
Who Has Authority Over A Woman?
Who is in authority over a woman?
Doesn't Genesis 2:24 show that a child is under the authority of his parents? Isn't it therefore the case that a woman is under her parents' authority until such time as they give her away to be under the authority of another person?
Isn't it clear from Genesis 16:1 that even though Hagar was not Sarai's child she was nevertheless under her authority, being her handmaid?
How Did Hagar Become Sarai's Handmaid?
How did Hagar become Sarai's handmaid?
Did she become her handmaid at the time Abram and Sarai were in Egypt, and Sarai was taken into Pharaoh's household? Did Hagar's parents give her to Sarai to be Sarai's handmaid, thereby transferring their authority over their daughter to Sarai?
Yahweh Facilitated Hagar's Fruitfulness
Isn't it clear that whereas Yahweh had restrained Sarai from conceiving, bearing and giving birth, he indeed facilitated Hagar conceiving, bearing and giving birth?
A Woman Bears A Child For The Man By Whom She Conceives
Isn't it clear from Genesis 16:1, 15 and 16 that when a woman bears a child she does so for the man by whom she conceived that child? Isn't it also clear from Genesis 6:4 that when men's daughters conceived by God's sons, the children they so bore, the Nephilim, they bore to God's sons? Isn't it therefore clear that children, even though they belong to both parents, primarily belong to the father, seeing that the woman bears them for the man?
Do We Accept Yahweh's Family Order Or Follow Human Tradition?
Do we as human beings accept Yahweh's order for the family, with children being primarily owned by their fathers and secondarily by their mothers? Or do we follow some human traditions that do not recognise a father's ownership of his children, recognising only the mother's ownership?
[Previous Section] [Contents] [Next Section]
Click here to inform a friend about this article
Return to Servants of Yahweh Site Contents page.
© 2000, Isaac Aluochier, All rights reserved. Published by Servants of Yahweh, P O Box 78, Royston, SG8 7WF, United Kingdom. E-mail: servantsofyahweh@serveyahweh.org. Permission is hereby GRANTED to reproduce this and other publications in the Servants of Yahweh web site, http://www.serveyahweh.org, unless otherwise stated.
Financial contributions, payable to Servants of Yahweh, and sent to P O Box 78, Royston, SG8 7WF, United Kingdom, are welcome and gratefully received. These facilitate the effective distribution of the word Yahweh has given us, both in electronic and hard copy formats. Not all have easy access to the Internet and therefore cannot easily access our web site, http://www.serveyahweh.org, for this information where it is freely available. These need hard copies of the information published on our web site. Production and distribution of books and booklets is significantly more costly than publishing and distributing material over the Internet. In this regard your financial contributions, whether by way of tithes and/or freewill offerings, go a great way in disseminating the word Yahweh has given us to the people he wills it to reach. May Yahweh richly bless you for your financial contributions to Servants of Yahweh.