Genesis 17:15-21 reads,

Isn't it clear that it is indeed Yahweh who facilitates a woman conceiving, bearing and giving birth? Didn't Yahweh make clear that he would facilitate Sarah conceiving, bearing and giving birth even though she was 90 years old and her husband 100 years old? Doesn't Yahweh have power to facilitate conception, bearing and giving birth even to human beings who have apparently lost the ability to conceive, bear and give birth? Isn't Yahweh the Omnipotent One - the All-Powerful One?

Genesis 18:9-15 reads,

Is anything too hard for Yahweh? Doesn't Yahweh show that nothing is too hard for him? Doesn't he show that he is capable of doing even what is apparently impossible, even facilitate the conception, bearing and giving birth of humans apparently past that phase in their lives?

Don't Sarah's words in 18:12 show that it is indeed a pleasure to conceive, bear and give birth to a child?

Why is it that some humans think it not a pleasure to conceive, bear and give birth? Why is it that some human beings act to prevent their receipt of the pleasure of conception, bearing and giving birth?

Genesis 19:1-17 reads,

Isn't it the case that the two angels who came to Sodom looked like men?

Isn't it clear that the men of Sodom sought to sexually defile the angels who looked like men through homosexuality? Isn't it also clear that they also sought to sexually defile Lot through homosexuality?

Isn't it clear from Lots words in 19:7 that homosexuality is a very wicked deed? Didn't it also seem to Lot that homosexuality was a more wicked a deed than adultery? For wasn't he prepared to give his two virgin daughters, already pledged as wives though not yet married, to the wicked homosexual Sodomites rather than see the angels sexually defiled?

Isn't it clear that in-law relationships are created prior to marriage, seeing that Lot had sons-in-law, pledged to marry his virgin daughters? Isn't it therefore clear that a woman indeed becomes a man's wife prior to her marriage - prior to the time she is to loose her virginity in sex with her husband? Doesn't it seem clear that a woman becomes a man's wife at the time that she is pledged to him as his wife - at betrothal? And isn't the one who pledges her as a man's wife her parents, the ones with authority over her? Therefore isn't it clear that a woman becomes a man's wife at the time her parents pledge her to a man to be his wife, even though she may still be a virgin?

Isn't it clear from Genesis 2:24 that a man is to leave his parents and sexually join with his wife, implying that the woman he sexually joins with is already his wife at the time of that sexual union? Isn't it now seen that she becomes his wife at the time her parents pledge her to him, even while she is still living with her parents? Doesn't she become married to him at the time she is released from her parents household for marriage, at the time of sexual union with her husband pledged to marry her? Isn't it clear then that a woman becomes a man's wife when her parents pledge her to him as his wife, but is only married when she is released for marriage and has sex with her husband, the man pledged to marry her? Isn't it therefore clear that a man is to have sex only with a woman who is his wife - a woman pledged to him for marriage in their first sexual union, and subsequently with that woman after their first sexual union - their marriage?

Genesis 20 reads,

Isn't it clear that Yahweh punished Abimelech and his household for his having taken another man's wife as his own wife, even though he had yet to sexually lie with her? Isn't it also clear that Yahweh's penalty upon Abimelech and his household would have been death if he had not restored Sarah to her rightful husband? In other words, isn't the penalty for adultery - taking another man's wife as one's own and sexually lying with her - death?

Isn't it clear that Abimelech sinned unwittingly, seeing that he did not know that Sarah was another man's wife? Isn't it also clear that even though a person sins unwittingly he still bears the penalty for that sin?

Isn't it clear from Yahweh's word in 20:6 that taking another man's wife as your own is sin against Yahweh?

Isn't it also clear from Yahweh's word in 20:6-7 that he prevented Abimelech from sinning against him, by not allowing him to sexually touch Sarah? Isn't it the case that Abimelech was not aware of Yahweh's command to him not to sexually touch Sarah prior to his conversation with Yahweh in the dream? Doesn't this show that sometimes Yahweh permits us or prevents us from taking courses of action without our being consciously aware of his word to us in those situations?

Doesn't it appear that there were two sins involved in the matter of Abimelech and Sarah? Wasn't the first sin that Abimelech committed, the lesser sin, that of taking another man's wife as his own? Wasn't the second sin, the greater sin, which Abimelech did not commit because Yahweh prevented him from so committing, that of sexually lying with another man's wife?

Doesn't Yahweh show that once a person becomes aware of his sin he should repent of it, by making reparations for the sin? Didn't Abimelech duly pay appropriate reparations to Abraham, against whom he had sinned on account of taking his wife Sarah as his own wife?

Doesn't Yahweh also show that his servants should pray for repentant sinners, that Yahweh might heal them of the consequences of their sins? Didn't Abraham duly pray for Abimelech?

Doesn't the encounter between Abimelech and Abraham show that to prevent a person committing sin appropriate disclosure of the circumstances of a situation should be made? Such as disclosing to other men that a particular woman is indeed wife to a man, that each such man may desist from sexually lying with her?

Isn't it clear that for Abimelech's sin of taking another man's wife as his own Yahweh made barren both Abimelech and his household - his wife and his maidservants (concubines)? Isn't it clear that a person's sin can indeed bring about a curse affecting not just that sinner, but also his entire household?

Did Yahweh punish Abimelech's wife and maidservants (concubines) because they were one flesh with Abimelech, and therefore one entity as far as Yahweh was concerned?

Isn't it clear that barrenness is a curse that Yahweh has inflicted upon a household that has sexually sinned against him? Isn't it therefore the case that the barrenness suffered by some people arises on account of sexual sin in their family?

Isn't it clear that Yahweh did not reprove Abimelech for taking an additional wife, seeing that he already had his own wife and maidservants (concubines)? Isn't it clear that the reproof was for adultery - taking another man's wife as his own, and not for polygyny - taking more than one woman as one's wife? Isn't it clear that polygyny is not adultery?

Why do human beings condemn those who practise polygyny when Yahweh does not condemn them? Why do human beings call polygyny sin yet Yahweh does not call polygyny sin?

Isn't it clear that when Abimelech called his nation a righteous nation Yahweh did not dispute this word of Abimelech? Isn't it clear that at this time Abimelech was indeed practising polygyny, having a wife and maidservants (concubines)? Isn't it clear that while Abimelech understood adultery to be a great sin, he understood polygyny not to be sin, seeing that the women he sexually took to himself were not the wives of other men?

Shouldn't we follow Yahweh's example, of not condemning those who practise polygyny? Shouldn't we accept that polygyny is indeed within the bounds of Yahweh's word, and is therefore not sin?

Shouldn't we also, learning from Abimelech's example, take precautions before taking a woman as a wife or otherwise taking her sexually? Shouldn't we first ascertain that she is not a man's wife, checking with a person in authority over her, or otherwise privy to the information? And where we cannot find a human in such stead, shouldn't we seek Yahweh and obtain from him both the answer and his will for us in that matter?

Genesis 21:1-7 reads,

Didn't Yahweh fulfil his word to Abraham and Sarah? Didn't Yahweh show that he indeed is the one who facilitates conception, bearing and giving birth?

Shouldn't we rely on Yahweh in matters of conception, bearing and giving birth, rather than take matters into our own hands? Shouldn't we allow Yahweh to give us the pleasure arising out of conception, bearing and giving birth at his own appointed times, rather than at times we in our puny wisdom think fit?

Genesis 21:8-14 reads,

Isn't it the case that Ishmael's mocking behaviour triggered the timing of his banishment from his father's household? Shouldn't human beings behave properly to those whom Yahweh has blessed?

Didn't Yahweh command Abraham to listen to the voice of his wife Sarah in all that Sarah had said? Doesn't this show that it is not necessarily wrong for a husband to listen to the voice of his wife? Doesn't this show that it is only wrong for a husband to listen to the voice of his wife if her word is contrary to Yahweh's word? But where her word is in harmony with Yahweh's word isn't it indeed right for him to listen to her, even as Yahweh commanded Abraham? Didn't Yahweh ratify Sarah's word, showing that the reason Sarah gave for her word was in harmony with Yahweh's word?

Doesn't Abraham's example show us that when a family member behaves inappropriately it is sometimes necessary to send that member away from the household? Doesn't this imply that all family members should behave in a manner in harmony with Yahweh's word?

Genesis 13:18 reads,

Genesis 22:19 reads,

Genesis 23:1-2 reads,

Genesis 23:19 reads,

Genesis 24:67 reads,

Genesis 35:27 reads,

Isn't it clear that Abraham at one time lived in Hebron, also known as Kiriath-arba? Isn't it also clear that at another time he also lived in Beersheba, subsequent to having lived at Hebron? Isn't it also clear that Sarah his wife continued to live in Hebron, and even died in Hebron, her tent being in Hebron, even where her son continued to live? Isn't it therefore clear that at the time of her death Abraham and Sarah were living apart, with Sarah living in Hebron and Abraham living in Beersheba? Didn't Abraham journey from his dwelling place in Beersheba to go to mourn for his wife Sarah in Hebron?

Why were Abraham and Sarah living apart at around the time of Sarah's death? Why did Abraham have another dwelling place in Beersheba, in addition to his dwelling place with Sarah in Hebron?

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