Leviticus 21:1-15 reads,

Doesn't Yahweh impose a higher standard on his holy people, the priests, than he does upon the rest of his people? Doesn't he prohibit them from taking as wife a prostitute or profane woman, or one put away from her husband, whereas he does not so forbid the rest of his people from so doing?

Doesn't Yahweh make clear that the prostitution of a daughter profanes not only her, but also her father? Shouldn't fathers therefore be extra vigilant to ensure that their daughters do not prostitute themselves, or that they do not cause their daughters to prostitute themselves such as by delaying giving them to a man as wife?

Doesn't Yahweh make clear that the most holy man among his people, the high priest, is allowed to take as wife only a virgin? Doesn't this imply that the holiest state an unmarried woman can be in is that of a virgin?

Leviticus 22:10-13 reads,

Doesn't Yahweh's word show that a childless daughter previously married can indeed return to her father's house, and be there as she was in her youth? Isn't this the word that Judah complied with when he asked his childless daughter-in-law Tamar to return to her father's house for a period of time, while Shelah was still growing up?

Seeing that Yahweh has spoken only with respect to a childless previously married woman, doesn't it appear that a previously married woman who has borne children is not to return to her father's house and be there as in her youth? Isn't her role that of looking after her children wherever it is that her children are?

Doesn't Hagar's case shed some light on this matter? When Abraham cast her out, didn't she refrain from returning to the house of her parents? Didn't she take care of her son in the wilderness and eat of what Yahweh provided them?

Isn't Zipporah's case also helpful in shedding some light in this matter? When she returned to her father's house, didn't her father seek to remove her from his house and return her back to Moses' house? Didn't her father's conduct indicate that a woman who has borne children indeed is not to return to her father's house as in her youth, but should take care of her children elsewhere, preferably in the household of those children's father?

Leviticus 26:1-13 reads,

Doesn't Yahweh make clear in 26:9 that it is in his power to make a people fruitful and multiply them? Seeing that Yahweh has commanded humans to be fruitful and to multiply, and seeing that it is in his power to facilitate that fruitfulness and multiplication, isn't it the case that humans should concentrate on what they should and leave what is beyond them to Yahweh? Shouldn't humans simply act in obedience to Yahweh's command of being fruitful and multiplying, without trying to prevent or impede their being fruitful and multiplying?

Numbers 5:11-31 reads,

Isn't it clear that when a wife is unfaithful to her husband, and sexually lies with another man, she becomes defiled or unclean?

Isn't it also clear that the spirit of jealousy can come on a husband, on account of his wife, irrespective of whether or not she is defiled or unclean? Doesn't this show that the spirit of jealousy is not a reliable indicator of a wife being defiled or unclean, seeing that it can come upon a husband even though his wife is clean?

Doesn't 5:20 show that a wife is under the authority of her husband?

Doesn't 5:21-22 show that Yahweh has capacity to curse a woman, by causing her body to waste away, on account of her defiling act of adultery? Shouldn't wives fear Yahweh, and not act unfaithfully against their husbands, lest Yahweh curse them by causing their bodies to waste away?

Doesn't 5:27-28 show that a woman cursed by Yahweh as shown above on account of her defiling adultery becomes barren? And doesn't Yahweh spare a clean woman, one not defiled or unclean by adultery, barrenness - facilitating her conceiving, bearing and giving birth?

Shouldn't Yahweh's people fear him and walk faithfully in his law, and not commit adultery? Shouldn't Yahweh's people act to spare themselves curses at Yahweh's hand on account of walking in the uncleanness and defilement of adultery?

Numbers 12 reads,

Isn't it clear that Miriam and Aaron spoke against Moses on account of his marrying a Cushite woman? Did they speak out against him on account of his marrying a woman not a child of Israel?

Wasn't the Cushite woman Moses married an additional wife to the Midianite woman, Zipporah, Jethro's daughter, who bore him two sons? Isn't it clear that Moses had more than one wife, a Midianite one and a Cushite one?

Didn't Yahweh make clear that Miriam and Aaron had sinned in speaking against Moses on account of his marrying a Cushite woman? Doesn't this imply that it was not sin on Moses' part in his marrying an additional wife, a Cushite woman?

Isn't it therefore clear that it is not sin for a man to marry an additional wife? Isn't it also clear that it is sin to speak out against a man on account of his marrying an additional wife?

Shouldn't Yahweh's people refrain from speaking out against men who marry additional wives on account of so marrying, seeing it is sin to so speak?

Numbers 27:1-11 reads,

Isn't it clear that among the children of Israel a man's inheritance is to pass onto his sons? Isn't it also clear that if the man has no sons then his inheritance passes onto his daughters? Isn't it therefore clear that in matters of inheritance sons have a right while daughters have only a contingency right, daughters having a right only when there are no sons?

Numbers 30 reads,

Isn't it clear from Yahweh's words that a daughter, being in her youth, in her father's house, prior to being given as wife to a man, is under her father's authority? Isn't it also clear that a wife is under her husband's authority?

Isn't it also clear that the vows of those under authority are not valid until ratified by the one in authority over them, the ratification being either express or by implication?

Numbers 36 reads,

Isn't it clear that there are circumstances where Yahweh restricts the group of people from whom a person may marry? Hasn't Yahweh restricted, within Israel, daughters possessing an inheritance from being married outside their father's tribe, that no inheritance passes from one tribe to another? Hasn't Yahweh also restricted a widow of a childless man to being married by one of his brothers, that she may conceive and bear seed to succeed to his name or bear his inheritance?

Deuteronomy 7:1-6 reads,

Isn't the reason Yahweh forbids his servants from marrying with those who do not serve him to prevent his servants from turning away from serving him? Doesn't this imply that a marriage relationship has great potential in causing a person to behave in a given manner, whether to serve Yahweh or whether to depart from serving Yahweh? And don't Yahweh's words show that in a marriage relationship there is greater potential in a mixed marriage for a servant of his to depart from him than for the servant of another god to become his servant?

Shouldn't Yahweh's people heed his words and forsake entering into marriage with those who do not serve him?

Deuteronomy 7:12-15 reads,

Aren't fruitfulness of the body and the multiplication of human beings a blessing from Yahweh? Isn't the lack of barrenness, among both men and women, a blessing from Yahweh?

Shouldn't Yahweh's people heed his words that he may indeed bless them, making them fruitful and multiplying them, and removing barrenness from among them?

Deuteronomy 13:6-11 reads,

Doesn't Yahweh show that if one person entices another to depart from serving Yahweh to serve other gods the relationship between the one and the other is to be terminated? Isn't that relationship to be terminated even if in the past both the one and the other had been faithfully serving Yahweh? Isn't the relationship to be terminated even in the case of a marriage relationship or other family relationship?

Doesn't Yahweh show that it is great wickedness for a person to entice another to depart from serving Yahweh to serve other gods?

Seeing that today people do not execute Yahweh's word to kill those who entice his servants to depart from him to serve other gods, how are servants of Yahweh to deal with a situation of a person seeking to entice them to depart from serving Yahweh to serve other gods?

Isn't it clear from Yahweh's word that his penalty upon such wicked people is death? Upon execution of Yahweh's word, don't the relationships that existed while the dead person was alive cease? Doesn't this imply that Yahweh's people should act towards such people as if they no longer existed, even if they are not killed? Doesn't this imply that Yahweh's people should cease all communication and relations with such people, acting as though the person was dead?

Does this imply, in the context of marriage, that a woman married to such a wicked man effectively becomes a widow in Yahweh's eyes? Or does her marriage continue to subsist, seeing that her wicked husband is still alive, and she is therefore not a widow? Does she remain his wife and bear whatever adverse consequences arising from her husband serving other gods, because Yahweh's word to kill her wicked husband wasn't executed?

In Genesis 20, when Abimelech had sinned in taking another man's wife to be his, didn't Yahweh tell him that he and all who were his would die if he did not restore the woman to her husband? Hadn't Yahweh already by then made barren Abimelech and all who were his - his wife and maidservants? Didn't the penalty for Abimelech's sin include all who were his - his wife and maidservants? Doesn't this indicate that Yahweh made no distinction between Abimelech and all who were his, those who were one-flesh with him? Weren't those who belonged to Abimelech caught up in his sin, even though they were not responsible for the sin, seeing that he was the one responsible for it? Doesn't this show that a maidservant of Yahweh married to a wicked man is caught up in the curses against her wicked husband, seeing she is one-flesh with him and therefore one entity with him in Yahweh's eyes?

How can a maidservant of Yahweh married to a wicked husband escape the punishment or curses that befall her husband's household on account of his wickedness?

In Genesis 38, didn't Yahweh kill Er on account of his wickedness, thereby terminating his marriage to Tamar? Didn't Yahweh also kill Onan on account of his wickedness, thereby terminating his marriage to Tamar? Wasn't the manner Yahweh terminated Tamar's marriages the death of her wicked husbands, thereby making her a widow?

Isn't it seen that Yahweh indeed has power to kill the wicked, even when those living around the wicked do not kill them? Doesn't this suggest that if a husband is wicked, in that he seeks to entice his wife to follow him in serving other gods apart from Yahweh, and those around him do not kill him, Yahweh indeed can kill him? Isn't this a way Yahweh may terminate the marriage of the wife to such a man, seeing that Yahweh has not given her authority to terminate her marriage on account of her husband's wickedness?

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