David And Saul's Widows Revisited
<< It should therefore be clear that David DID NOT have sexual
intercourse with all of Saul's wives. >>
According to Lev. 18:8, a man was forbidden to cohabit with his father's wife. Since the son-in-law was to consider his WIFE'S father, HIS father as well, his STEPMOTHER'S would therefore be prohibited from him cohabiting/having sexual relations with as well. This was established in ancient Roman law as well.
Is Not The Questioner Adding To Scripture?
Are you not ADDING to the Scripture?
Where in Scripture is a man forbidden from marrying his late father-in-law's widows provided none of these women is also the mother of his wife? Are you not using human reasoning to ADD to Yahweh's word?
Does Not Marriage End At Death?
Does marriage continue after the death of one of the parties to the marriage? Is the woman still married to her dead husband? Does not marriage end upon death? Such that once a husband dies, any wife married to him while he was alive is free to be married to someone else, subject to Yahweh's law.
A Widow Can Be Married By A Son-In-Law Of Her Late Husband
A wife is prohibited from having sex with any man not her husband, including her husband's son-in-law who is not also her son-in-law, being the son-in-law of another of her husband's wives. If her husband dies, her marriage to him ceases. She is free to be married by another man, including a son-in-law of a woman who was also the wife of her husband while he lived. There is no law of Yahweh restricting her from being so married by such a man, provided her late husband had a son to succeed to his name and inheritance.
A Man Marrying His Late Brother's Widow Does Not Violate Leviticus 18
If you try to argue that such a woman is prohibited by Leviticus 18:8 from marrying such a man after the death of her husband then you manifest a failure to appreciate other portions of Leviticus 18. For Leviticus 18:16 prohibits a man from having sex with his brother's wife. Yet, if his brother dies without a son, the man is compelled by the law to marry his late brother's widow. By so marrying his late brother's widow the man is not breaking Leviticus 18:16. For at the time that he marries his late brother's widow she is not married, her marriage to this man's brother having ceased upon the death of the man's brother. She is therefore free to be married and have sex with another man, including her late husband's brother.
It is therefore evident that your rationale above is not correct. For you fail to appreciate that a wife's marriage to a man ceases upon the man's death, after which she is free to be married to another man, subject to Yahweh's laws.
Questioner Continues To Argue That David Did Not Marry Saul's Widows
Therefore, since Saul only had TWO wives, and a concubine (and none of which did David take as a wife, nor could he have sexual intercourse (with them due to the restriction in the law), then WHY is this verse used to supposedly PROVE that Yahweh, with Saul's wives, caused David to be polygynous when this verse 2 Sam. 2:8, proves no such thing???
All this text proves is that Saul's house and all his female court and domestics passed over into David's possession.
Also, In the listing of David's wives, Saul's wives are never in the list! Therefore, the PROOF is on YOU that ANY OF THE FEMALES of Saul's house were taken as David's wives! GIVE ME YOUR TEXTS!!!
You say that Saul had only two wives and a concubine, making three in total. 1 Samuel 14:49-50 reads,
"14:49Now the sons of Sha'ul were Yonatan, and Yishvi, and Malkishua; and the names of his two daughters were these: the name of the firstborn Merav, and the name of the younger Mikhal: 14:50and the name of Sha'ul's wife was Achino'am the daughter of Achima`atz. The name of the captain of his host was Aviner the son of Ner, Sha'ul's uncle."
2 Samuel 3:7 reads,
"3:7Now Sha'ul had a concubine, whose name was Ritzpah, the daughter of Ayah: and Ish-Boshet said to Aviner, 'Why have you gone in to my father's concubine?'"
If you have a scripture listing the name of or reference to Saul's other wife I would be grateful, for I have so far found only these two. And seeing that you are so confident that he had only two wives and a concubine, making three in total, I am inclined to think that you have a scripture reference affirming the same.
Not All Of Saul's Or David's Wives (Concubines) Are Named In The Scripture
My view is that not all of Saul's wives (concubines) are listed in the Scripture by name, just as not all of David's wives (concubines) are listed in the Scripture by name. In fact, in the general listing of Saul's descendants, only his four sons are listed, as in 1 Chronicles 8:33,
"8:33Ner became the father of Kish; and Kish became the father of Sha'ul; and Sha'ul became the father of Yonatan, and Malchi-shua, and Avinadav, and Eshbaal."
And also in 1 Chronicles 9:39. Yet Saul had more sons than these, for he also had sons by his concubine Ritzpah, as seen in 2 Samuel 21:8,
"21:8But the king took the two sons of Ritzpah the daughter of Ayah, whom she bore to Sha'ul, Armoni and Mefivoshet; and the five sons of [Merav] the daughter of Sha'ul, whom she bore to `Adri'el the son of Barzillai the Mecholati."
Yahweh's Word In 2 Samuel 12:8 Is Sufficient For The Author
It should therefore not seem a difficult thing if Saul had other wives (concubines) who did not bear him sons and are also not listed in the Scriptural record. Accepting this probability, for even David had concubines whose names were not listed in the Scriptural record, and other Yisraelite leaders also had wives (concubines) whose names were not listed in the Scriptural record, I do not need a scriptural listing of the names of all of Saul's wives (concubines) for me to believe that he had them. Yahweh's word in 2 Samuel 12:8 is sufficient for me,
"12:8I gave you your master's house, and your master's wives into your bosom, and gave you the house of Yisra'el and of Yahudah; and if that would have been too little, I would have added to you many more such things."
Why is Yahweh's word in 2 Samuel 12:8 not sufficient for you, that you insist that they must all be listed by name before you will accept that Saul indeed had wives whom Yahweh gave to David after Saul's death? Is it for you to tell Yahweh how he should speak to you so that you believe his clear words? That Yahweh has said that he gave David Saul's widows should be sufficient for all who believe Yahweh!
Questioner Does Not Believe Yahweh's Words In 2 Samuel 12:8
Your using this verse to support your lifestyle, is MERELY your misapplying Holy Scripture and using YOUR PRIVATE INTERPRETATION which is forbidden by scripture! This text DOES NOT SUPPORT YOUR POLYGYNOUS PRACTICES!!!
Based on what we have covered so far, it is indeed evident that YOU are the one "misapplying Holy Scripture and using your private interpretation, which is forbidden by Scripture"! For you have ADDED to Leviticus 18:8, thereby changing the meaning of Leviticus 18. Where Yahweh has placed no restriction on a man marrying a particular widow, you have placed such a restriction. It is evident that you are continuing in your teaching for doctrine the traditions of men instead of the commandments of Yahweh!
And where Yahweh has clearly said that he gave David for wives Saul's widows, you disbelieve Yahweh and demand additional proof from Yahweh! If you will not accept or believe Yahweh's simple statements, why do you portray yourself to be teaching Yahweh's word? You are not teaching Yahweh's word. You are teaching human traditions palmed off as Yahweh's word! Your actions are those of a false teacher, yet you portray yourself to be true!
You need to repent of this evil that you may be forgiven by Yahweh.
ISAAC
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