Romans 1:1-6, 13 reads,

Paul established a link between the gospel of the Mighty One, which he preached, with the prophecies of the prophets in the holy Scriptures. In other words, what he was preaching wasn't without expectation, seeing that it had already been promised beforehand through the prophets in the holy Scriptures.

1:7 shows that Paul wrote to ALL IN ROME called to be saints. He did not make a distinction in this verse with respect to Jews and Gentiles, but simply wrote to all - both Jews and Gentiles - in Rome called to be saints. Nevertheless, in 1:13, he speaks specifically to the Gentiles in Rome, seeing that he compares his audience with "the rest of the Gentiles". It therefore appears that Paul was writing to a mixed audience of both Jews and Gentiles. It also appears that one has to follow his writing closely to ascertain when he is addressing both groups collectively or only one of them.

Romans 2:10-16 reads,

In 2:12 Paul taught that is POSSIBLE to both sin without law and sin with law or sin under the law. In other words, those who are without law are those who are NOT under the law, and those who are under the law are those who are with law.

Which law is Paul talking about?

It seems to me that he is talking about the law of Moses. For the law of Moses was given to the children of Israel, and the children of Israel are to be subject to that law. On the other hand non-Israelites were not given the law of Moses. They are therefore not subject to the law of Moses.

Seeing that Paul taught that it is possible to sin without being subject to the law of Moses it appears that he taught that sin could indeed be defined outside the law of Moses. Seeing also that he taught that it is possible to sin under the law of Moses it appears that sin can indeed be defined within the law of Moses. This implies that he taught that what is necessary for the definition of sin that is applicable to all humans, irrespective of whether or not they are children of Israel, is contained in the law of Moses. In other words, even non-Israelites can obtain the definition of sin within the law of Moses. Therefore, the portion of the law of Moses that defines what sin is, applicable to all humans, is useful also to non-Israelites who were not formally given the law of Moses to be subject to.

Did Paul specify which portions of the law of Moses define what sin is, that non-Israelites may use them in coming to know of what sin is?

In 2:15 Paul talks about the work of the law of Moses written in the hearts of non-Israelites - those non-Israelites who avoid committing sin even though they have not formally been given the law of Moses to be subject to. In other words, some non-Israelites, those who avoid committing sin, live by those provisions of the law of Moses that define sin, even though the law of Moses was not formally given to non-Israelites.

In 2:16 Paul talks about the Mighty One judging the secrets of men according to the gospel that he preached. In this he makes no distinction between the standard used to judge Israelites and that used to judge non-Israelites. He therefore implies that the same standard - the gospel - will be used to judge all human beings.

Previously, in 2:12, he said that the law of Moses would judge those under the law of Moses. The law of Moses contains a portion that defines what sin is, a portion that is applicable even to non-Israelites who were not formally given the law of Moses to be subject to. Seeing that this portion of the law of Moses that defines sin is applicable to both Israelites and non-Israelites, and seeing that both Israelites and non-Israelites are to be judged by the gospel, it is indeed concluded that Paul equated the gospel with the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin!

For if Israelites are to be judged by the gospel, and they are also to be judged by the law of Moses, then the gospel and the law of Moses must indeed be one and the same. And if non-Israelites are to be judged by the gospel, and also by the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin, then indeed the gospel and the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin are one and the same. It is therefore the case, according to Paul's writings, that all humans will be judged by the same standard - the gospel, which is synonymous with the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin.

Romans 2:17-29 reads,

In 2:17 Paul equates resting on the law of Moses with glorying in the Mighty One. In 2:18 he shows that those who are instructed out of the law of Moses know the Mighty One's will and approve the things that are excellent. They are also guides to the blind, lights to those who are in darkness, correctors of the foolish and teachers of babies. In 2:20 he shows that the law of Moses contains the form of knowledge and of the truth. All of these are positive attributes arising out of the law of Moses.

Paul, continuing to speak to Israelites, urges them not to be hypocrites. Because they have the law of Moses, including all of its positive attributes, they should live by it. They should not just speak about it without living it, thereby blaspheming the name of the Mighty One.

In 2:25-29 Paul makes a distinction between circumcision and doing or transgressing the law, a distinction between circumcision and keeping the ordinances of the law or fulfilling the law. In other words, he says that circumcision is outside the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin. He says that it is possible for one not to be circumcised while still fulfilling the law or keeping the ordinances of the law.

Does Paul define what the ordinances of the law are, which when kept are the fulfilling of the law?

In this passage Paul does not define what the ordinances of the law are. Nevertheless, going by his earlier words he equates this with the gospel contained in the law of Moses. For if a non-Israelite does not observe physical circumcision yet is considered to be fulfilling the law, when he observes the ordinances of the law, he indeed implies that the non-Israelite does not sin. Seeing that earlier on he equated the gospel with the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin, and seeing that a non-Israelite who observes the ordinances of the law does not sin, it is indeed concluded that he taught that the gospel and the ordinances of the law are one and the same.

Also, tying together what Paul says here, and what he said in 2:15, isn't it seen that he equates keeping the ordinances of the law with the work of the law being written in a person's heart? In other words, Paul is showing that keeping the ordinances of the law is synonymous with having the work of the law written in a person's heart. And tying this together with 2:29, Paul is showing that keeping the ordinances of the law is synonymous with the circumcision that is of the heart, the circumcision that is of the spirit. Therefore, according to Paul's teaching, those who keep the ordinances of the law have the law written in their hearts, have the law written in their spirits!

It should therefore be clear, from Paul's teachings, that having the law written in a person's heart does not exclude that person from observing or keeping the law. For it is by keeping the ordinances of the law - fulfilling the law - that the person indeed has the law written in his heart. It is therefore IMPOSSIBLE, according to Paul's teaching, for one to have the work of the law of Moses written in one's heart if one does not keep the ordinances of the law of Moses - the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin - the gospel!

Romans 3:1 reads,

Seeing that Israelites have the oracles of the Mighty One they have in their possession all of the positive attributes of having the oracles of the Mighty One. Those who don't have the oracles of the Mighty One - non-Israelites - therefore need to go to Israelites to acquire the very same oracles, that they too may have in their possession all of the positive attributes of having the oracles of the Mighty One. In other words, Israelites have been given pre-eminence seeing that possession of the oracles of the Mighty One has been entrusted to them.

Romans 3:5-9 reads,

In 3:8 Paul clearly acknowledged that he understood that there were others maligning his message, even affirming that he was preaching what he wasn't preaching. Why was Paul's message being slanderously reported? And why did some affirm that Paul preached what he did not preach?

It should be noted that there were two categories of people who reported amiss what Paul preached. The first group were those who were slandering Paul. Their motive was false reporting. The second group affirmed that Paul preached what Paul contends he did not preach. The motive of false reporting should not be attributed to this second group. I think this second group genuinely believed what they said, that Paul preached "let us do evil, that good may come"!

Why did the second group so believe?

It seems to me that they held this belief because Paul's writing was NOT crystal clear. Paul's message came across to them as "let us do evil, that good may come". Had Paul's writing been crystal clear this second group would not have had opportunity for believing amiss - believing that Paul taught what he asserted he did not teach!

In that case, what, then, is Paul's teaching?

Paul's basic teaching is AVOID SIN.

What is sin?

It is defined in the law of Moses, for the law of Moses contains a portion that defines what sin is.

Therefore Paul's teaching is that one should go to the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin to learn what sin is, and then avoid committing it. This means keeping the ordinances of the law of Moses - that portion that defines what sin is, which he also equates with the gospel. By so keeping these ordinances the work of the law is written in one's heart or spirit, and by so being written one is indeed circumcised in the heart, irrespective of whether or not one is circumcised in the flesh.

Romans 3:19-26 reads,

3:20 shows that the purpose of the law of Moses is NOT to justify one before the Mighty One. The purpose of the law of Moses is NOT to make us right with the Mighty One. The purpose of the law of Moses is to show the definition of sin. The law of Moses reveals what sin is.

3:23 affirms that all humans have sinned, both those under the law of Moses and those not subject to the law of Moses.

Basically, when one sins, one loses one's standing with the Mighty One. To regain one's standing with the Mighty One, to again be right with the Mighty One, one must be devoid of sin. This means that the sin that one has committed must be removed from one. This means that one must be forgiven of the sin one has committed. To be forgiven the sin that one has committed the Mighty One requires us to believe in his Son Yah'shuah the Messiah. By so believing in his Son Yah'shuah the Messiah he forgives us the sins we have committed prior to the time of so believing in him.

The Mighty One then requires us to abide by his word, that we don't sin again. His word is contained within the law of Moses. We must specifically abide by the portion in the law of Moses that defines what sin is. This portion is applicable to all human beings, irrespective of whether they are Israelites or not, irrespective of whether they are subject to the entirety of the law of Moses or not. And this portion was applicable to Israelites even prior to their being issued with the law of Moses, for it has always been applicable to all human beings. It was simply contained within the entirety of the law of Moses to ensure that Israelites would not unwittingly sin. But it was applicable to both them and non-Israelites even prior to the issuance of the law of Moses.

By avoiding sin, by observing the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin, we remain right with the Mighty One. Nevertheless we can stumble and sin, and by so sinning fall from being right with the Mighty One. To return to our rightness with the Mighty One we must seek the Mighty One's mercy - forgiveness of our new sin. We must repent of the new sin and seek the Mighty One's forgiveness. When the Mighty One forgives us the new sin, after our repentance, we return to being right with the Mighty One. We must then abide by the ordinances in the law of Moses - the portion of the law of Moses that defines what sin is.

The reason the Mighty One forgives us our sins, when we stumble but subsequently repent, is because he is merciful and gracious. He forgives us our sins when we accept the payment for these sins that his Son Yah'shuah the Messiah paid, which means believing in Yah'shuah the Messiah.

Nevertheless, the Mighty One requires us to live our lives without sin. He therefore requires us to abide by the ordinances in the law of Moses, the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin. By so doing, the work of the law of Moses is written in our hearts. And the more we remain in the right, live sinless lives, according to the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin, the more the work of the law of Moses is written in our hearts, and the more spiritually circumcised we are.

But if we disregard the Mighty One's word, choosing to sin, not observing the portion of the law of Moses that defines sin, then we indeed remain in the wrong with the Mighty One. Because we are living in sin, and are not repenting of our sins, he does not forgive us. And by continuing in sin we are telling the Mighty One that we do not regard the penalty paid for our sins by his Son, Yah'shuah the Messiah. We are in other words telling him that we do not accept the sacrifice of his Son Yah'shuah the Messiah, and therefore that we do not believe in Yah'shuah the Messiah. Because we are telling him that we do not believe in Yah'shuah the Messiah the Mighty One does not forgive us our sins. We therefore remain in the wrong with him and await our judgement, to be judged as those who are in the wrong with him.

In other words, those who abuse the Mighty One's grace, which comes through his Son Yah'shuah the Messiah, are indeed condemned to the punishment of those who reject his Son Yah'shuah the Messiah. This is the punishment of those who are not right with him.

Romans 3:27-31 reads,

Those Paul says slander him say that he is teaching doing away with the law. For they understand that Paul says that justification comes by faith in Yah'shuah the Messiah and not by observing the law of Moses. In other words, in their understanding, the purpose for the law is justification. And since the law does not facilitate justification, it has no purpose or has failed in its purpose. It should therefore be done away with.

But earlier on in 3:20 Paul clearly revealed his understanding of the purpose of the law of Moses - revealing what sin is! Paul's understanding of the purpose of the law of Moses is therefore at variance with that of those he says slander him. For Paul's alleged slanderers presume the purpose of the law of Moses to be justification! They therefore allegedly slander Paul on a totally false basis - borne out of their own misunderstanding of the purpose of the law of Moses!

Romans 4:15 reads,

What does Paul mean when he says that "the law works wrath"?

He explains what he means in the very same verse. He implies that wrath comes about as a result of disobedience to the law, wrath being the penalty for disobedience to the law. But if there is no law there is nothing to disobey. And if there is nothing to disobey there is no reason for wrath to arise on account of a disobedience that does not exist.

Some therefore argue that to avoid wrath, the wrath that arises on account of disobedience to the law, the law should be done away with. Some even go so far as to say that there will be no wrath, for the law has been done away with, and therefore there is no disobedience. In other words, these are saying that as the law has been done away with, there is no sin in the world, and as a result of no sin or disobedience there is no wrath arising on account of sin or disobedience.

It is evident, going by Paul's comments already covered, that Paul IS NOT teaching that the law is done away with. Paul is NOT TEACHING that there will be no wrath arising on account of disobedience or sin. Paul is teaching that there will indeed be wrath on account of sin or disobedience. Paul is teaching that the law of Moses, the law that defines sin, is still applicable, and that those who violate it, especially the portion that defines sin, will indeed encounter the wrath of the Mighty One.

Romans 5:8-10 reads,

Paul clearly notes that the Mighty One's wrath is indeed coming upon those who are not justified by the blood of the Mighty One's Son, Yah'shuah the Messiah. Seeing that he said that wrath exists only where there is disobedience or sin, and seeing that disobedience or sin exists only where there is law, Paul is clearly saying that the law continues to exist for the Mighty One's wrath is indeed coming! It is therefore Paul's clear teaching that the law of Moses exists, seeing that it is in the law of Moses that sin is identified.

Romans 5:12-14 reads,

Paul is clearly saying that sin existed from the time of Adam even right up to the time of Moses, when the law of Moses was given to the children of Israel. Seeing that sin cannot exist where no law exists, it is clearly implied that the law that defines sin existed from the time of Adam even right up to the time of the issuance of the law of Moses. In other words, all that happened with the issuance of the law of Moses was the codification in a single place of the law that already existed, seeing that it was in existence even at the time of Adam, the first human. Paul is therefore saying that the law that defines sin did not originate at the time of Moses, but was already in existence even from the time of Adam. The law of Moses is therefore just a convenient reference point for the law that defines sin, the law that has always been in existence during human life on earth.

It should also be noted that Paul informs on the penalty for sin - death.

Romans 5:18-21 reads,

5:20 is open to ambiguity!

One interpretation is that the PURPOSE for the issuance of the law of Moses was to increase sin or trespass.

BUT, going by what Paul himself had said earlier on, is the purpose of the law of Moses the proliferation of sin or trespass? Didn't he in 3:20 give the purpose of the law as the provision of knowledge of sin? Is the provision of the knowledge of sin the same as a desire to proliferate the committing of sin?

Provision of knowledge of sin is NOT the same as proliferation of sin. In other words, knowing that something is sin is not the same as committing that sin.

Therefore it SHOULD NOT be said that the law of Moses was given for the purpose of proliferating sin! It was given for the purpose of giving knowledge of what sin is, NOT to proliferate sin!

Now, a rebellious person might choose to sin, because he desires to rebel against the Mighty One and therefore looks for ways and means by which he may indeed rebel and compound upon his rebellion. Therefore, when such a person learns that he is subject to the law of Moses, containing additional provisions to those existing prior to its issuance, he will indeed rebel against it in all of its various provisions. He will therefore be compounding upon his already sinful life by adding more sin to those already existing.

But the law was not given to this rebellious person that he may compound upon his rebellion. It was given to him that he may know what sin is, that he may avoid sin and live righteously. In other words, the law is given not for the purpose of proliferating sin but for increasing righteous living, with righteous living being defined as living according to the provisions of the law, especially those that define sin.

Therefore, to avoid ambiguity, 5:20 should read as follows: "The law came in besides, that RIGHTEOUSNESS might abound; but where sin abounded, grace did abound more exceedingly".

Earlier on Paul clearly stated that the purpose of the law of Moses is to provide knowledge of sin. Its purpose is not to justify sinners before the Mighty One. Justification of sinners before the Mighty One is performed by faith in the Mighty One's Son, Yah'shuah the Messiah, who paid the penalty of sin committed by sinners.

Grace, which is synonymous with justification, is on the same side with the law of Moses. On the opposite side, contrary to both grace and the law of Moses, is sin - violation of the law of Moses, especially the portion defining sin. A person needs knowledge of sin, provided by the law, in order to avoid committing sin and be right with the Mighty One. Once a person commits sin he is no longer right with the Mighty One, and the law of Moses is powerless in bringing him back to rightness with the Mighty One. Justification, bringing the person back to rightness with the Mighty One is performed by faith in the sacrifice of the Mighty One's Son, Yah'shuah the Messiah. For when one accepts that sacrifice one indeed acknowledges Yah'shuah as his Saviour from the death penalty of sin, and one purposes to live from that time forth according to the word of Yahweh through his Son Yah'shuah. One is indeed under grace, as one did not pay the death penalty for one's own sin, but it was paid for one by Yah'shuah the Messiah. Grace therefore facilitates rightness with the Mighty One, which the law of Moses, or any law for that matter, is powerless to perform or do. Nevertheless, just because grace has power the law of Moses does not have does not mean that the law of Moses and grace are opposed to one another. They are not opposed to one another, working in conjunction with each other. They are complements and not contrasts.

Now, if one truly says that the law was given that trespass may abound, as 5:20 says, then one is saying the OPPOSITE of what Paul has been saying all along! For if it is indeed the case that the law is given for the purpose of proliferating sin, then the way to do without sin is not to issue any law. Therefore one might argue that to avoid sin let there be no issuance of law. Another might argue that to end sin let any issued law be abrogated, for once the issued law has been abrogated there will no longer exist sin, and therefore no death, the penalty of sin.

Now this message is opposed to Paul's clear message in what he has spoken prior to 5:20. For Paul argued strongly in 3:31 that the law hasn't been made of no effect, but is in fact established by the message that he preaches. Also, in Romans 2:17-20 Paul listed the various positive attributes of the law of Moses. These include resting on the law of Moses being equated with glorying in the Mighty One. Being instructed out of the law of Moses facilitates having knowledge of the Mighty One's will and approving of things that are excellent. Being instructed out of the law facilitates one being a guide to the blind, a light to those who are in darkness, a corrector of the foolish and a teacher of babies. The law of Moses also contains the form of knowledge and also of the truth.

Therefore, those arguing for the abrogation of the law of Moses are also arguing for the abrogation of all of these positive qualities associated with the law of Moses. They are arguing for a cessation in glorying in the Mighty One. And when one ceases to glory in the Mighty One, one glories in either human beings or demonic beings!

Those arguing for the abrogation of the law of Moses are arguing for ignorance in the Mighty One's will and the disapproval of things that are excellent. When one is ignorant of the Mighty One's will and disapproves of things that are excellent, will not that one approve of things that are perverse? Aren't those arguing for the abrogation of the law of Moses arguing for the approval of perverse things?

Those arguing for the abrogation of the law of Moses are arguing for the perpetuation of blindness, remaining in darkness, remaining in folly and remaining in immaturity. They are also arguing for ignorance and falsehood.

These are the fruits of doing away with the law of Moses, as picked up from Paul's own words. Are these the fruits that Paul was fighting for in his ministry? Are these the fruits that those who argue for the abrogation of the law of Moses desire upon themselves and others?

Romans 6:1-2 reads,

That Paul talks clearly about the possibility of a person continuing in sin shows that it is still possible to continue in sin. This implies that the law continues to exist, for sin exists only where law exists. Paul is therefore showing that the law has not been abrogated but continues to exist even in the age of grace. In other words, Paul is saying that grace and keeping the law go together. These are complements and not contrasts.

It therefore appears that Paul was not arguing for the abrogation of the law of Moses, the law that defines sin. He argued for its observance, even among those already in grace, having accepted the sacrifice of Yahweh's Son Yah'shuah the Messiah.

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